Website
|
22
|
Role-play. Mechanisms of normal labour
& delivery.
|
|
23
|
Structured discussion. Clinical
governance.
|
|
24
|
EMQ. Gestational trophoblastic
disease.
|
|
25
|
EMQ. Cancer incidence and mortality.
|
22. Role-play.
Mechanisms of normal labour & delivery.
Candidate’s instructions.
You are the SpR on call for the delivery unit. It is
unusually quiet. The on-call consultant has asked you to explain normal labour
and delivery to a medical student who started with the department yesterday.
23. Structured discussion. Clinical governance.
Candidate’s instructions.
This is a structured clinal discussion station about
clinical governance. The examiner will ask you 6 questions.
When you have finished a question, you will not be
allowed to return to it as later questions may indicate the answer. If you return,
no marks will be awarded, even for correct answers.
24. EMQ.
Gestational trophoblastic disease.
Abbreviations.
APSN: atypical
placental site nodule.
CHM: complete
hydatidiform mole.
COC: combined
oral contraceptive.
GI: gastro-intestinal.
GTD: gestational
trophoblastic disease.
GTN: Gestational
trophoblastic neoplasia.
HM: hydatidiform
mole.
PHM: partial
hydatidiform mole.
POC: products
of conception.
PSTT: placental
site trophoblastic tumour.
Option list.
|
A.
|
100%.
|
|
B.
|
20%.
|
|
C.
|
15%.
|
|
D.
|
10%.
|
|
E.
|
5%.
|
|
F.
|
2.5%.
|
|
G.
|
1.5%.
|
|
H.
|
0.5%.
|
|
I.
|
1 in 35.
|
|
J.
|
1 in 55.
|
|
K.
|
1 in 65.
|
|
L.
|
1 in 700.
|
|
M.
|
1 in 1,000.
|
|
N.
|
Ö64.
|
|
O.
|
pr2.
|
|
P.
|
increased.
|
|
Q.
|
reduced.
|
|
R.
|
increased by a factor of 2.
|
|
S.
|
increased by a factor of 5.
|
|
T.
|
increased by a factor of 10.
|
|
U.
|
increased by a factor of 20.
|
|
V.
|
increased by a factor of 30.
|
|
W.
|
increased by a factor of > 100.
|
|
X.
|
hydatidiform mole, both partial and complete.
|
|
Y.
|
hydatidiform mole, both partial and complete and
placental site tumour.
|
|
Z.
|
partial mole, complete mole, invasive and metastatic
mole, choriocarcinoma, placental site trophoblastic tumour and epithelioid
trophoblastic tumour.
|
|
AA.
|
choriocarcinoma invasive and metastatic mole and
epithelioid trophoblastic tumour.
|
|
BB.
|
true
|
|
CC.
|
false
|
|
DD.
|
None of the above.
|
Scenario 1.
List the conditions included in
the term GTD. There is no option list, just make a list.
Scenario 2.
What is the difference between GTD and GTN? Pick one
option from the list below.
Option list.
|
A
|
GTD comprises the non-malignant conditions, i.e.
complete and partial moles.
GTN comprises the malignant conditions: invasive mole,
choriocarcinoma and PSTT
|
|
B
|
GTD comprises all the trophoblastic conditions; GTN
comprises the malignant conditions
|
|
C
|
GTD comprises all the trophoblastic conditions; GTN comprises
persistent GTD
|
|
D
|
GTD comprises all the trophoblastic conditions; GTN comprises
malignant and potentially malignant conditions, including atypical placental
site nodules
|
|
E
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 3.
What is the incidence of GTD in
the UK?
Scenario 4.
Which of the following
statements, if any, are true of complete hydatidiform molar pregnancy?
|
A
|
are usually diploid and with all
the chromosomal material of paternal origin
|
|
B
|
are usually triploid, with 2
sets of paternal haploid genes + 1 set of maternal haploid genes
|
|
C
|
are usually triploid, with 1
set of paternal haploid genes + 2 sets of maternal haploid genes
|
|
D
|
are tetraploid or mosaics in
up to 10% of cases
|
|
E
|
up to 80% are due to
duplication of a single sperm in an egg devoid of maternal chromosomes
|
|
F
|
up to 80% are due to
duplication of a single sperm in a normal egg
|
|
G
|
usually result from dispermic
fertilisation of a normal egg
|
|
H
|
usually result from dispermic
fertilisation of an egg devoid of maternal chromosomes
|
|
I
|
usually has 46XX makeup
|
|
J
|
usually has 46XY makeup
|
|
K
|
the presence of fetal red
blood cells defines a mole as partial
|
|
L
|
mitochondrial DNA is maternal
|
|
M
|
mitochondrial DNA is paternal
|
Scenario 5.
Which of the following
statements, if any, are true of partial hydatidiform molar pregnancy?
Option list.
|
A
|
are usually diploid and with
paternal chromosomal material
|
|
B
|
are usually triploid, with 2
sets of paternal haploid genes + 1 set of maternal haploid genes
|
|
C
|
are usually triploid, with 1 set
of paternal haploid genes + 2 sets of maternal haploid genes
|
|
D
|
are tetraploid or mosaics in
up to 10% of cases
|
|
E
|
up to 80% are due to
duplication of a single sperm in an egg devoid of maternal chromosomes
|
|
F
|
up to 80% are due to
duplication of a single sperm in a normal egg
|
|
G
|
usually result from dispermic
fertilisation of a normal egg
|
|
H
|
usually result from dispermic
fertilisation of an egg devoid of maternal chromosomes
|
|
I
|
usually has 46XX makeup
|
|
J
|
usually has 46XY makeup
|
|
K
|
the presence of fetal red
blood cells defines a mole as partial
|
|
L
|
mitochondrial DNA is maternal
|
|
M
|
mitochondrial DNA is paternal
|
Scenario 6.
What is the ratio of complete:
partial moles?
Scenario 7.
What is the risk of molar
pregnancy at age < 15 compared to age 30?
What is the risk of molar pregnancy at age > 45 compared
to age 30?
Scenario 9.
What is the risk of molar
pregnancy in a subsequent pregnancy after a complete mole?
Option list.
|
A
|
< 1%
|
|
B
|
1-2%
|
|
C
|
3-5%
|
|
D
|
6-10%
|
|
E
|
11-20%
|
|
F
|
> 20%
|
Scenario 10.
What is the risk of molar
pregnancy in a subsequent pregnancy after a partial mole?
Use the option list from the
previous question.
Scenario 11.
Which, if any, of the following
are more common in pregnancy after a molar pregnancy? This is not a true EMQ as
there may be > 1 correct answer.
Option list.
|
A
|
anaemia
|
|
B
|
eclampsia / severe PET
|
|
C
|
intrauterine growth
retardation
|
|
D
|
miscarriage
|
|
E
|
pulmonary embolism
|
|
F
|
PPH
|
|
G
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 12.
What is the risk of molar
pregnancy in a subsequent pregnancy for the woman who has had two molar
pregnancies?
Scenario 13.
Which, if any, of the following
statements about hCG are true?
|
A
|
is a glycoprotein
|
|
B
|
shares its α sub-unit with
FSH, LH & TSH
|
|
C
|
shares its α sub-unit with
FSH & LH but not TSH
|
|
D
|
shares its β sub-unit with
FSH, LH & TSH
|
|
E
|
shares its β sub-unit with
FSH & LH but not TSH
|
|
F
|
β-core exists as a sub-type
of β-hCG
|
|
G
|
nicked free-β exists as a
sub-type of β-hCG
|
|
H
|
c-terminal peptide exists as
a sub-type of β-hCG
|
|
I
|
hCG β core fragment may lead
to false –ve results with urine pregnancy tests
|
|
J
|
heterophile antibodies may
give false +ve hCG results
|
|
K
|
heterophile antibodies are
not found in urine
|
Scenario 14.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true in relation to the diagnosis of molar pregnancy?
|
A
|
definite diagnosis is usually
made by ultrasound
|
|
B
|
definitive diagnosis requires
a +ve test for P57KIP2
|
|
C
|
definitive diagnosis requires
an hCG level > twice the median value for gestation
|
|
D
|
definite diagnosis requires
histological examination
|
|
E
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 15.
Cystic placental spaces in the placenta and a ratio of
transverse to anterioposterior
measurements of the gestation sac <1.5 are strongly
suggestive of a partial mole. True / False.
Which, if any, of the following statements are true about
preparation of the cervix before evacuation of molar pregnancy?
|
A
|
medical preparation is of proven efficacy in making
suction evacuation easier
|
|
B
|
medical preparation with prostaglandins ↑ trophoblastic embolisation
|
|
C
|
medical preparation with prostaglandins
↑ the risk of needing chemotherapy
|
|
D
|
GTG 38 recommends the use of laminaria tents
|
|
E
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 17.
Which, if any, of the following statements are true about
evacuation of molar pregnancies?
|
A
|
medical management is recommended for both CMs and PMs to
↓ the risk of bleeding
|
|
B
|
medical management is recommended for both CMs and PMs to
↓ the risk of dissemination of trophoblastic tissue
|
|
C
|
medical management is recommended for both CMs and PMs to
↓ the risk
of uterine perforation
|
|
D
|
suction evacuation is recommended for both CMs and PMs
|
|
E
|
suction evacuation is recommended for CMs
|
|
F
|
suction evacuation is recommended for PMs so long as
fetal parts are not too big
|
|
G
|
mifepristone + misoprostol treatment is an acceptable
alternative to suction evacuation.
|
|
H
|
oxytocin administration after suction evacuation is
recommended to ↓ bleeding
|
|
I
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 18.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true about urinary hCG testing in relation to molar pregnancy?
|
A
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after medical evacuation of complete moles
|
|
B
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after surgical evacuation of complete moles
|
|
C
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after medical evacuation of partial moles
|
|
D
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after surgical evacuation of complete moles
|
|
E
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after medical evacuation of ‘failed’ pregnancy
|
|
F
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after surgical evacuation of ‘failed’ pregnancy
|
|
G
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after medical evacuation of ‘failed’ pregnancy, but only if POC have
not been sent for histological examination
|
|
H
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after surgical evacuation of ‘failed’ pregnancy, but only if POC have
not been sent for histological examination
|
|
I
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after medical evacuation of incomplete miscarriage
|
|
J
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after surgical evacuation of incomplete miscarriage
|
|
K
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after medical evacuation of incomplete miscarriage, but only if POC
have not been sent for histological examination
|
|
L
|
testing should be done 3
weeks after surgical evacuation of incomplete miscarriage, but only if POC
have not been sent for histological examination
|
|
M
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 19.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true in relation to histological examination of POC after TOP?
|
A
|
it should be done in all
cases to exclude GTD
|
|
B
|
it should be done in all
cases that have not had pre-op ultrasound examination in case the pregnancy
was an unsuspected ectopic. Absence of trophoblastic tissue on histology will
raise suspicion of the diagnosis
|
|
C
|
it should be done in all
cases where ultrasound has not shown a viable pregnancy
|
|
D
|
it should be done in all
cases where ultrasound has not shown fetal parts.
|
|
E
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 20.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true in relation to RhD and TOP?
|
A
|
CMs have no RhD
|
|
B
|
PMs have no RhD
|
|
C
|
Anti-D should be withheld
until histological results are available
|
|
D
|
‘C’ is true, but only in
relation to CMs
|
|
E
|
‘C’ is true, but only in
relation to PMs
|
|
F
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 21.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true in relation to GTN?
|
A
|
always arises from molar
pregnancy
|
|
B
|
may occur after normal
pregnancy and livebirth
|
|
C
|
may arise as primary ovarian
neoplasia
|
|
D
|
the incidence after complete
molar pregnancy is greater than after partial molar pregnancy
|
|
E
|
the incidence after livebirth
is estimated at 1 in 50,000
|
Scenario 22.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true in relation to p57KIP2?
|
A
|
it is a tumour suppressor
gene, found in complete and partial moles but not choriocarcinoma
|
|
B
|
takes us to the world of
genomic imprinting
|
|
C
|
is an example of uniparental
disomy
|
|
D
|
is a gene found in
chromosomes of maternal origin, but not paternal
|
|
E
|
is a gene found in
chromosomes of paternal origin, but not maternal
|
|
F.
|
can help to distinguish
complete and partial moles
|
|
G.
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 23.
What is the risk of persistent GTD after a complete mole?
Scenario 24.
What is the risk of requiring chemotherapy after a
complete mole?
Scenario 25.
What is the risk of persistent
GTD after a partial mole?
Scenario 26.
What is the risk of requiring
chemotherapy after a partial mole?
Scenario 27.
What is the risk of requiring
chemotherapy with hCG level > 20,000 i.u. 4+1 weeks after
evacuation?
Scenario 28.
What is the overall risk of
requiring chemotherapy after molar pregnancy in the UK?
Scenario 29.
What is the risk of requiring
chemotherapy in the USA compared with the UK?
Scenario 30.
Which, if any, of the following
are grounds for offering chemotherapy after hydatidiform mole?
Scenario 31.
What are the risk factors
included in the FIGO scoring system?
Scenario 32.
Which, if any, of the following
statements is true about the recommended treatment of low-risk GTN?
|
A
|
|
|
B
|
|
|
C
|
|
|
D
|
|
|
E
|
|
|
F.
|
|
Scenario 33.
Which, if any, of the following
is the most common side-effect of methotrexate?
|
A
|
alopecia
|
|
B
|
anaemia
|
|
C
|
aphasia
|
|
D
|
nausea
|
|
E
|
myelosuppression
|
|
F.
|
none of the above.
|
Scenario 34.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true about the recommended duration of follow-up after GTD? This
is not a true EMQ as there may be > 1 correct answer.
|
A
|
6 months from the time the hCG
falls to normal
|
|
B
|
6 months from the date of
evacuation of the GTD if the hCG falls to normal within 56 days
|
|
C
|
6 months from the date of the
hCG falling to normal if it does so within 56 days
|
|
D
|
6 months from the date of
evacuation of the GTD if the hCG falls to normal after 56 days
|
|
E
|
6 months from the date of the
hCG falling to normal if it does so after 56 days
|
|
F.
|
56 days after the first full
moon after the evacuation of the GTD
|
Scenario 35.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true about the recommended duration of follow-up after GTD? This
is not a true EMQ as there may be > 1 correct answer.
|
A
|
6 months from the time the hCG
falls to normal
|
|
B
|
6 months from the date of
evacuation of the GTD if the hCG falls to normal within 56 days
|
|
C
|
6 months from the date of the
hCG falling to normal if it does so within 56 days
|
|
D
|
6 months from the date of
evacuation of the GTD if the hCG falls to normal after 56 days
|
|
E
|
6 months from the date of the
hCG falling to normal if it does so after 56 days
|
|
F.
|
56 days after the first full
moon after the evacuation of the GTD
|
Scenario 36.
What is the approximate cure
rate for GTN with a FIGO risk score <6?
|
A
|
70%
|
|
B
|
80%
|
|
C
|
90%
|
|
D
|
95%
|
|
E
|
98%
|
|
F.
|
100%
|
Scenario 37.
What is the approximate cure
rate for GTN with a FIGO risk score >7?
|
A
|
70%
|
|
B
|
80%
|
|
C
|
90%
|
|
D
|
95%
|
|
E
|
98%
|
|
F.
|
100%
|
Scenario 38.
When should the possibility of
persistent GTD be investigated after non-molar pregnancy?
|
A
|
if there is abnormal bleeding
|
|
B
|
if there is persistent abnormal
bleeding
|
|
C
|
if there is cough
|
|
D
|
if there is new-onset dyspnoea
|
|
E
|
if there is pleurodynia
|
Scenario 39.
A woman wishes to become
pregnant after a pregnancy with GTD. Which, if any, of the following statements
are true about the advice she should be given about an appropriate
inter-pregnancy interval?
|
A
|
not before follow-up is complete
|
|
B
|
not for at least 3/12 after
completion of follow-up
|
|
C
|
not for at least 6/12 after
completion of follow-up
|
|
D
|
not for at least 12/12 after
completion of follow-up
|
|
E
|
she should be advised not to
become pregnant if chemotherapy was needed
|
|
F
|
not for at least 6 months after
completion of follow-up if chemotherapy was needed
|
|
G
|
none of the above
|
Scenario 40.
Which of the following
statements are true about combined hormonal contraception use after GTD?
|
A
|
it may increase the risk of GTN
if used before hCG levels have returned to normal
|
|
B
|
is not associated with
additional risk
|
|
C
|
intra-uterine contraceptives are
preferable
|
Scenario 41.
Which, if any, of the following
statements are true about the long-term issues for women who have needed
chemotherapy for GTN?
|
A
|
the menopause is likely to be
earlier
|
|
B
|
the risk of other cancers is not
increased
|
|
C
|
there is evidence of ↑ risk of breast cancer
|
|
D
|
there is evidence of ↑ risk of colon cancer
|
|
E
|
there is evidence of ↑ risk of myeloid leukaemia
|
|
F
|
there is evidence of ↑ risk of melanoma
|
|
G
|
there is evidence of ↑ risk of breast cancer
|
|
H
|
there is no evidence of addition
risk with HRT
|
Scenario 42.
A woman had a complete mole in her first pregnancy. She
is pregnant for the second time. What is the risk that it is another molar
pregnancy?
Scenario 43.
A woman has had two molar pregnancies. What is the risk
of molar pregnancy if she becomes pregnant again?
Scenario 44.
A woman has had three molar pregnancies. What is the risk
of molar pregnancy if she becomes pregnant again?
Scenario 45.
Which, if any, of the following statements are correct in
relation to recurrence of molar pregnancy?
|
A
|
the histological type is likely to be the same
|
|
B
|
the histological type in recurrent mole after a
complete mole is likely to be partial mole
|
|
C
|
the histological type in recurrent mole after a partial
mole is likely to be complete mole
|
|
D
|
the histological type after PSTT is likely to be
choriocarcinoma
|
|
E
|
none of the above
|
25. EMQ. Cancer incidence and mortality.
Abbreviations.
NHL: non-Hodgkin Lymphoma.
Question 1.
Lead-in
Which is
the most common female cancer?
Option List
|
A.
|
Bowel
|
|
B.
|
Breast
|
|
C.
|
Cervix
|
|
D.
|
Endometrium
|
|
E.
|
Lung
|
Question 2.
Lead-in
Which is
the 2nd. most common female cancer?
Option List
|
A.
|
Bowel
|
|
B.
|
Breast
|
|
C.
|
Cervix
|
|
D.
|
Endometrium
|
|
E.
|
Lung
|
Question 3.
Lead-in
Which is
the 3rd. most common female cancer?
Option List
|
A.
|
Bowel
|
|
B.
|
Breast
|
|
C.
|
Cervix
|
|
D.
|
Endometrium
|
|
E.
|
Lung
|
Question 4.
Lead-in
Which is
the 4th. most common female cancer?
Option List
|
A.
|
Bowel
|
|
B.
|
Cervix
|
|
C.
|
Endometrium
|
|
D.
|
Lung
|
|
E.
|
Pancreas
|
Question 5.
Lead-in
Which is
the 5th. most common female cancer?
Option List
|
A.
|
Cervix
|
|
B.
|
Malignant melanoma
|
|
C.
|
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
|
|
D.
|
Ovary
|
|
E.
|
Vulva
|
Question 6.
Lead-in
Which is
the 6th. most common female cancer?
Option List
|
A.
|
Cervix
|
|
B.
|
Malignant melanoma
|
|
C.
|
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
|
|
D.
|
Ovary
|
|
E.
|
Vulva
|
Question 7.
Lead-in
Where does
cervical cancer feature in the list of the most common female cancers?
Option List
|
A.
|
10th.
|
|
B.
|
11th.
|
|
C.
|
13th.
|
|
D.
|
14th.
|
|
E.
|
20th.
|
Question 8.
Lead-in
Where does
vulval cancer feature in the list of the most common female cancers?
Option List
|
A.
|
10th.
|
|
B.
|
12th.
|
|
C.
|
16th.
|
|
D.
|
20th.
|
|
E.
|
none of the above
|
Question 9.
Lead-in
Which is
the most common cancer causing female death in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
Breast
|
|
B.
|
Bowel
|
|
C.
|
Lung
|
|
D.
|
Ovary
|
|
E.
|
Pancreas
|
Question 10.
Lead-in
Which is
the 2nd. most common cancer causing female death in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
Breast
|
|
B.
|
Bowel
|
|
C.
|
Lung
|
|
D.
|
Ovary
|
|
E.
|
Pancreas
|
Question 11.
Lead-in
Which is
the 3rd. most common cancer causing female death in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
Breast
|
|
B.
|
Bowel
|
|
C.
|
Lung
|
|
D.
|
Ovary
|
|
E.
|
Pancreas
|
Question 12.
Lead-in
Which is
the 4th. most common cancer causing female death in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
Brain
|
|
B.
|
Oesophagus
|
|
C.
|
Ovary
|
|
D.
|
Pancreas
|
|
E.
|
Uterus
|
Question 13.
Lead-in
Which is
the 5th. most common cancer causing female death in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
Brain
|
|
B.
|
Oesophagus
|
|
C.
|
Ovary
|
|
D.
|
Pancreas
|
|
E.
|
Uterus
|
Question 14.
Which is
the 6th. most common cancer causing female death in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
Brain
|
|
B.
|
Oesophagus
|
|
C.
|
Ovary
|
|
D.
|
Pancreas
|
|
E.
|
Uterus
|
Question 15.
Lead-in
The
incidence of cervical cancer has fallen from the 1990s until now. What is the
approximate figure for the fall?
Option List
|
A.
|
10%
|
|
B.
|
25%
|
|
C.
|
50%
|
|
D.
|
60%
|
|
E.
|
75%
|
Question 16.
Lead-in
Which, if
any, of the following statements are true in relation to CIN.
Option List
|
A
|
there were ~ 20,000 new cases of CIN in 2015
|
|
B
|
there
were ~ 30,000 new cases of CIN in 2015
|
|
C
|
there were ~ 50,000 new cases of CIN in 2015
|
|
D
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN are highest in
women aged 19 - 24
|
|
E
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN are highest in
women aged 25 - 29
|
|
F
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN are highest in
women aged 30 - 39
|
|
G
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN ↑
by ~ 10 % since the 1990s
|
|
H
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN ↑ by ~ 20 % since
the 1990s
|
|
I
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN ↑ by ~ 30 % since
the 1990s
|
|
J
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN ↑ by ~ 5 % in the
past decade
|
|
K
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN ↑ by ~ 10 % in the
past decade
|
|
L
|
incidence rates for new cases of CIN ↑ by ~ 15 % in the
past decade
|
Question 17.
Lead-in
Which, if
any, of the following statements describes the change in incidence of cervical
cancer in the past decade.
Option List
|
A.
|
↑ by 5%
|
|
B.
|
↓ by 5%
|
|
C.
|
↑ by 10%
|
|
D.
|
↓ by 10%
|
|
E.
|
↑ by 15%
|
|
F.
|
↓ by 15%
|
|
G.
|
↑ by 20%
|
|
H.
|
↓ by 20%
|
|
I.
|
↑ by 25%
|
|
J.
|
↓ by 25%
|
Question 18.
Lead-in
What is
the peak age at which cervical cancer is diagnosed in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
20-24
|
|
B.
|
25-29
|
|
C.
|
30-34
|
|
D.
|
35-39
|
|
E.
|
40-44
|
|
F.
|
45-49
|
|
G.
|
50-54
|
|
H.
|
55-59
|
|
I.
|
≥60
|
Question 19.
Lead-in
What
proportion of cervical cancer is diagnosed in women < 45 years?
Option List
|
A.
|
20%
|
|
B.
|
30%
|
|
C.
|
40%
|
|
D.
|
50%
|
|
E.
|
60%
|
Question 20.
Lead-in
The
mortality rate from cervical cancer has fallen from the late 1970s until now.
What is the approximate figure for the fall?
Option List
|
A.
|
10%
|
|
B.
|
25%
|
|
C.
|
50%
|
|
D.
|
60%
|
|
E.
|
75%
|
Question 21.
Lead-in
The
mortality rate from cervical cancer has fallen in the past decade. What is the
approximate figure for the fall?
Option List
|
A.
|
10%
|
|
B.
|
25%
|
|
C.
|
50%
|
|
D.
|
60%
|
|
E.
|
75%
|
Question 22.
Lead-in
The
mortality rate from cervical cancer has fallen in the past decade. What is the
approximate figure for the fall?
Option List
|
F.
|
10%
|
|
G.
|
25%
|
|
H.
|
50%
|
|
I.
|
60%
|
|
J.
|
75%
|
Question 23.
Lead-in
When was
routine HPV vaccination of girls introduced in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
2000
|
|
B.
|
2002
|
|
C.
|
2004
|
|
D.
|
2006
|
|
E.
|
2008
|
Question 24.
Lead-in
From what
year might we expect to see a reduction in cervical cancer incidence as a
result of the HPV vaccination programme?
Option List
|
A.
|
2020
|
|
B.
|
2025
|
|
C.
|
2030
|
|
D.
|
2040
|
|
E.
|
2050
|
Question 25.
Lead-in
When was
routine HPV vaccination of boys introduced in the UK?
Option List
|
A.
|
2010
|
|
B.
|
2011
|
|
C.
|
2012
|
|
D.
|
2014
|
|
E.
|
it has not been introduced in the UK
|
|
F.
|
None of the above
|
.
