|
25 |
EMQ. Abortion Act. |
|
26 |
Role-play. Introduction / Summary of GP
letter / Agenda |
|
27 |
EMQ. Headache |
|
28 |
EMQ. Semmelweis, Gordon and Holmes |
25. EMQ. Abortion Act & TOP.
Scenario 1
How many abortions were performed on residents of E&W
aged 15-44 in 2018?
Option list
|
A |
about 50,000 |
|
B |
about 100,000 |
|
C |
about 150,000 |
|
D |
about 200,000 |
|
E |
about 250,000 |
|
F |
> 250,000 |
Scenario 2
What was the approximate rate of abortion in E&W
residents in 2018?
Option list
|
A |
1 per 1,000 resident women aged 15-44 |
|
B |
10 per 1,000 resident women aged 15-44 |
|
C |
15 per 1,000 resident women aged 15-44 |
|
D |
25 per 1,000 resident women aged 15-44 |
|
E |
50 per 1,000 resident women aged 15-44 |
|
F |
100 per 1,000 resident women aged 15-44 |
Scenario 3
The rate of abortion in residents of E&W has declined
by >20% from 2008-2018.
Option list
|
A |
False |
|
B |
Haven’t a clue |
|
C |
Maybe |
|
D |
No data exist |
|
E |
True |
Scenario 4
What proportion of TOPs were performed at gestations
<10 weeks in E&W in 2018?
Option list
|
A |
50% |
|
B |
60% |
|
C |
70% |
|
D |
80% |
|
E |
90% |
Scenario 5
There was a significant improvement in the proportion of
TOPs performed early from 2008-2018.
Option list
|
A |
False |
|
B |
Haven’t a clue |
|
C |
Maybe |
|
D |
No data exist |
|
E |
True |
Scenario 6
What % of abortions were performed after 24 weeks in
2018?
Option list
|
A |
< 1% |
|
B |
1 - 3% |
|
C |
4 - 6% |
|
D |
7 - 9% |
|
E |
≥ 10% |
Scenario 7
What proportion of TOPs were performed using medical
techniques in 2018?
Option list
|
A |
20% |
|
B |
30% |
|
C |
40% |
|
D |
50% |
|
E |
60% |
|
F |
70% |
|
G |
80% |
Scenario 8
Which age had the highest rate of TOP in 2018?
Option list
|
A |
18 |
|
B |
19 |
|
C |
20 |
|
D |
21 |
|
E |
22 |
|
F |
23 |
|
G |
24 |
|
H |
25 |
Scenario 9
What happened to the rate of TOP in 2018 for girls <18
years compared with 2008?
Option list
|
A |
the rate was much lower |
|
B |
the rate was slightly lower |
|
C |
the rate was much higher |
|
D |
the rate was slightly higher |
|
E |
the rate was unchanged |
Scenario 10
What happened to the rate of TOP in 2015 for girls <16
years compared with 2006?
Option list
|
A |
the rate was much lower |
|
B |
the rate was slightly lower |
|
C |
the rate was much higher |
|
D |
the rate was slightly higher |
|
E |
the rate was unchanged |
Scenario 11
What happened to the rate of TOP in 2016 for girls <16
years compared with 2015?
Option list
|
A |
the rate was much lower |
|
B |
the rate was slightly lower |
|
C |
the rate was much higher |
|
D |
the rate was slightly higher |
|
E |
the rate was unchanged |
Scenario 12
Approximately what proportion of women having TOP in 2016
had previously had one or more TOPs?
Option list
|
A |
1% |
|
B |
5% |
|
C |
10% |
|
D |
20% |
|
E |
30% |
|
F |
40% |
|
G |
50% |
Scenario 13
What age group of women 1n 2016 were most likely to have
had previous TOP?
Option list
|
|
Age |
|
A |
< 18 |
|
B |
18-19 |
|
C |
20-24 |
|
D |
25-29 |
|
E |
30-34 |
|
F |
≥ 35 |
Scenario 14
There were 185,824 TOPs in 2015. How many deaths
occurred?
Option list
|
A |
0 - 9 |
|
B |
10 - 19 |
|
C |
20 - 39 |
|
D |
40 - 59 |
|
E |
≥ 60 |
Scenario 15
There were 185,824 TOPs in 2015. What was the rate of
significant complications?
Option list
|
A |
<1% |
|
B |
1% |
|
C |
3% |
|
D |
5% |
|
E |
10% |
Scenario 16
The RCOG recommends that women having TOP should have
chlamydia screening. What proportion of women had this done in 2016?
Option list
|
A |
<10% |
|
B |
10- 24% |
|
C |
25- 49% |
|
D |
50- 79% |
|
E |
80- 89% |
|
F |
≥ 90% |
Scenario 17
The Abortion Act gives a number of grounds for TOP. Which is listed as “1 (1)
a”?
Option list
|
1 |
that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th.
week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater
than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental
health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family |
|
2 |
the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th.
week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater
than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental
health of any existing children of the family of the pregnant woman |
|
3 |
the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to
the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated |
|
4 |
the termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent
injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman |
|
5 |
there is a substantial risk that if the child were born
it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously
handicapped |
Scenario 18
The Abortion Act gives a number of grounds for TOP. Which
is listed as “1 (1) b”?
Option list
|
1 |
that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th. week and
that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the
pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the
pregnant woman or any existing children of her family |
|
2 |
the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to
the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated |
|
3 |
the termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent
injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman |
|
4 |
there is a substantial risk that if the child were born
it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously
handicapped |
|
5 |
none of the above |
Scenario 19
The Abortion Act gives a number of grounds for TOP. Which
is listed as “1 (1) c.
Option list
|
1 |
that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th. week and
that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the
pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the
pregnant woman or any existing children of her family |
|
2 |
the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to
the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated |
|
3 |
the termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent
injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman |
|
4 |
there is a substantial risk that if the child were born
it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously
handicapped |
|
5 |
none of the above |
Scenario 20
The Abortion Act gives a number of grounds for TOP. Which
is listed as “1 (1) d”?
Option list
|
1 |
that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th. week and
that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the
pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the
pregnant woman or any existing children of her family |
|
2 |
the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to
the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated |
|
3 |
the termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent
injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman |
|
4 |
there is a substantial risk that if the child were born
it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously
handicapped |
|
5 |
none of the above |
Scenario 21
The Abortion Act gives a number of grounds for TOP. Which
is listed as “1 (1) e”?
Option list
|
1 |
the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th.
week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater
than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental
health of the pregnant woman |
|
2 |
the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th.
week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater
than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental
health of any existing children of the family of the pregnant woman |
|
3 |
the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to
the life of the pregnant woman greater than if the pregnancy were terminated |
|
4 |
the termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent
injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman |
|
5 |
there is a substantial risk that if the child were born
it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously
handicapped |
|
6 |
none of the above |
Scenario 22
With regard to the wording of the Abortion Act and
grounds “F” and “G”. Which of the following statements are true?
|
1 |
“F” & “G” are grounds for TOP in an emergency with
only one doctor needing to sign the legal form necessary for the TOP to take
place |
|
2 |
“F” & “G”
are grounds for TOP after 24 weeks. |
|
3 |
“F” relates to TOP to save the woman’s life |
|
4 |
“F” relates to TOP to prevent grave permanent injury
her physical or mental health |
|
5 |
“F” & “G” do not exist. |
Option list
|
A |
1 + 3 |
|
B |
1 + 4 |
|
C |
2 + 3 |
|
D |
2 + 4 |
|
E |
5 |
Scenario 23
In relation to terms such as “substantial risk”, “grave
permanent injury” and “seriously handicapped”, which of the following is true?
Option list
|
A |
The terms were defined by a Parliamentary
sub-committee, examples were given and are included in Appendix 2 (b) to the
Act. |
|
B |
The terms were defined by a Parliamentary
sub-committee, examples were given and are included in Appendix 2 (c) to the
Act. |
|
C |
The terms were defined by the General Medical Council,
examples were given and the information can be downloaded from the GMC
website. |
|
D |
The terms were defined by the RCOG, examples were given
and the information can be downloaded from the RCOG website. |
|
E |
The terms have not been defined. |
Scenario 24
Which of the following statement is true about the most
common grounds for TOP?
Option list
|
1 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground A from Certificate
A. |
|
2 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground B from Certificate
A. |
|
3 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground C from Certificate
A. |
|
4 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground D from Certificate
A. |
|
5 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground E from Certificate
A. |
|
6 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground F from Certificate
A. |
|
7 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground G from Certificate
A. |
|
8 |
TOP is most commonly done on ground H from Certificate
A. |
Scenario 25
Which of the following statements is true in relation to
the upper gestational limit for TOP to be legal in the UK?
|
1 |
Termination of pregnancy is legal to 24 weeks |
|
2 |
Termination of pregnancy is legal after 24 weeks if the
mother is at serious risk of death or grave, permanent injury or there is a
major risk of the fetus having a serious anomaly. |
|
3 |
Termination of pregnancy is legal after 24 weeks if the
mother’s life is at serious risk or there is a major risk of the fetus having
a serious anomaly, but only if approved by the Department of Health’s “Late
Termination of Pregnancy Assessment Panel”. |
|
4 |
Termination of pregnancy is illegal after 24 weeks, but
is still done if the mother’s life is at serious risk or there is a major
risk of the fetus having a serious anomaly and there is a long-standing
agreement that the police and legal authorities will “turn a blind eye”. |
Option list
|
A |
1 + 2 |
|
B |
1 + 3 |
|
C |
1 + 4 |
|
D |
2 + 4 |
|
E |
5 |
Scenario 26
Which of the following statement are true in relation to
TOP after 24 weeks?
Statements
|
1 |
TOP is illegal after 24 weeks |
|
2 |
The mother must agree to feticide pre-TOP |
|
3 |
Feticide must be offered |
|
4 |
There must be very serious grounds for the TOP |
|
5 |
Gender-selection TOP is unacceptable |
Option list
|
A |
1 |
|
B |
1 + 2 |
|
C |
2 + 3 + 5 |
|
D |
3 + 4 |
|
E |
3 + 4 + 5 |
Scenario 27
TOPs done under ground E are
those done at any gestation because of fetal abnormality. The anomalies are
coded using ICD10. The HSA4 notification form relating to each TOP should have
details of the ICD10 code for the fetal anomaly.
Which of the following
statements is the most accurate in relation to the percentage of HSA4 forms
that contain the required information?
|
A |
0- 24% |
|
B |
25- 49% |
|
C |
50- 59% |
|
D |
60- 69% |
|
E |
≥ 70% |
Scenario 28
TOPs done under ground E are
those done at any gestation because of fetal abnormality. Which, if any, of the
following statements are true of TOPs under ground E in 2015?
|
A |
the average of the woman was
34, compared to 21 for the average for all grounds |
|
B |
congenital malformations were
the grounds in > 80% of cases |
|
C |
Down’s syndrome was the most
common reason for ground E TOP |
|
D |
fetal cardiac anomalies were
the most common reason for ground E TOP |
|
E |
fetal nervous system
anomalies were the most common reason for ground E TOP |
Scenario 29
Which form relates to certifying that a woman requesting
a TOP can have it done legally?
Option list
|
A |
HSA1 |
|
B |
HSA2 |
|
C |
HSA3 |
|
D |
HSA4 |
|
E |
HSA5 |
Scenario 30
Which form must the practitioner performing the TOP
complete to notify the Department of Health that a TOP has been done?
Option list
|
A |
HSA1 |
|
B |
HSA2 |
|
C |
HSA3 |
|
D |
HSA4 |
|
E |
HSA5 |
Scenario 31
A doctor signing the form giving the grounds for a TOP
must have seen the woman.
Option list
|
A |
True |
|
B |
False |
|
C |
Sometimes |
|
D |
Don’t know & don’t care |
Scenario 32
A doctor performing a TOP must be one of the doctors who
signed the initial form giving the grounds for the TOP.
Option list
|
A |
True |
|
B |
False |
|
C |
Sometimes |
|
D |
Don’t know & don’t care |
Scenario 33
What is the time scale for the return of the form
notifying that a TOP has taken place?
Option list
|
A |
3 working days |
|
B |
5 working days |
|
C |
1 week |
|
D |
2 weeks |
|
E |
1 month |
Scenario 34
A woman seeks 1st.
trimester TOP on social grounds which she declines to discuss in detail.
Which of the following
statements apply?
Option List
|
A |
TOP can be done under clause
A of Certificate A |
|
B |
TOP can be done under clause
B of Certificate A |
|
C |
TOP can be done under clause
C of Certificate A |
|
D |
TOP can be done under clause
D of Certificate A |
|
E |
TOP can be done under clause
E of Certificate A |
|
F |
TOP can be done under clause
F of Certificate A |
|
G |
TOP can be done under clause
G of Certificate A |
|
F |
there is no clause
authorising TOP on social grounds |
Scenario 35
A woman seeks 1st. trimester
TOP. She has pulmonary hypertension and has been advised of the risks of
pregnancy by her cardiologist. Which of the following statements apply?
|
A |
TOP can be done under clause
A of Certificate A |
|
B |
TOP can be done under clause
B of Certificate A |
|
C |
TOP can be done under clause
C of Certificate A |
|
D |
TOP can be done under clause
D of Certificate A |
|
E |
TOP can be done under clause
E of Certificate A |
|
F |
TOP can be done under clause
F of Certificate A |
|
G |
TOP can be done under clause
G of Certificate A |
|
F |
there is no clause
authorising TOP on these grounds |
Scenario 36
A woman books at 26 weeks. She
has an unplanned pregnancy. She has pulmonary hypertension and has been advised
of the risks of pregnancy by her cardiologist.
Which of the following
statements apply?
A TOP should be offered under clause A of Certificate A
B TOP should be offered under clause B of Certificate A
C TOP should be offered under clause C of Certificate A
D TOP should be offered under clause D of Certificate A
E TOP should be offered under clause E of Certificate A
F TOP should be offered under clause F of Certificate A
G TOP should be offered under clause G of Certificate A
F there is no clause authorising TOP on these grounds
26. Role-play. Introduction / Summary of GP letter /
Agenda .
Candidate’s instructions.
You are an
ST5 and about to see Mary Rockbottom. The GP referral letter is below.
Your tasks
are to introduce yourself, deal with the GP letter, plan the consultation and
explain to the patient about her asking questions.
GP referral letter.
The Health
Centre,
Havensea.
HV12 3ZT.
Re: Mary
Rockbottom. DOB 6 January 1994,
27
Nautical Avenue,
Havensea.
HV10 4XY.
Dear
Doctor,
Please see
Mrs Rockbottom who wants to have a baby. The main problem is that her sister
has had a baby with Down’s syndrome, apparently due to translocation, about
which I know very little. Please see and advise.
Dr. T.
Erse.
27. EMQ.
Headache.
|
1 |
abdominal migraine |
|
2 |
analgesia overuse, aka medication
overuse |
|
3 |
bacterial meningitis |
|
4 |
benign intracranial hypertension |
|
5 |
BP check |
|
6 |
cerebral venous sinus thrombosis |
|
7 |
chest X-ray |
|
8 |
cluster |
|
9 |
severe PET / impending eclampsia |
|
10 |
malaria |
|
11 |
meningococcal meningitis |
|
12 |
methyldopa |
|
13 |
methysergide |
|
14 |
migraine |
|
15 |
MRI brain scan |
|
16 |
nifedipine |
|
17 |
nitrofurantoin |
|
18 |
pancreatitis |
|
19 |
sinusitis |
|
20 |
subdural haematoma |
|
21 |
subarachnoid haemorrhage |
|
22 |
tension |
|
23 |
ultrasound scan of the abdomen |
Scenario
1.
A 405-year-old para 3 is admitted at 38
weeks by ambulance with severe headache of sudden onset.
She d6escribes it as “the worst I’ve ever had”. Which diagnosis needs to be
excluded urgently?
Scenario
2.
A 32-year-old para 1 has recently experienced
headaches. They are worse on exercise, even
mild exercise such as walking up stairs. She experiences photophobia with the headaches. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Scenario
3.
A woman returns from a sub-Saharan area of
Africa. She develops severe headache, fever and rigors.
What diagnosis should particularly be in the minds of the attending doctors?
Scenario
4.
A woman at 37 weeks has s. They particularly occur at
night without obvious triggers. They occur every few days.
Scenario
5.
A primigravida has had s on a regular basis for many
years. They occur most days, are bilateral and are worse when she is stressed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Scenario
6.
A woman complains of recent headaches at 36 weeks. The history reveals that they started soon
after she began treatment with a drug prescribed by her GP. Which is the most
likely of the following drugs to be the culprit: methyldopa, methysergide,
nifedipine or nitrofurantoin?
Scenario
7
A woman is booked for Caesarean section
and wishes regional anaesthesia. She had severe headache due to dural tap after
a previous Caesarean section. She wants to take all possible steps to reduce
the risk of having this again. Which of epidural / spinal anaesthesia has the
lower risk of causing dural tap?
Scenario
8
A 25-year-old primigravida attends for her
20-week scan and complains of headache which started two weeks before. There is
no significant history. The pain occurs behind her right eye and she describes
it as severe and “stabbing” in nature. The pain is so severe that she cannot
sit still and has to walk about. She has noticed that her right eye becomes
reddened and “watery” during the attack and her nose is “runny”. The attacks
have no obvious trigger and mostly occur a few hours after she has gone to
sleep. The usually last about 20 minutes. She has no other symptoms. She smokes
20 cigarettes a day but does not take any other drugs, legal or otherwise. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
Scenario
9
A woman has a 5-year history of
unilateral, throbbing headache often preceded by nausea, visual disturbances,
photophobia and sensitivity to loud noise. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Scenario
10
A primigravida is admitted at 38 weeks complaining of
headache, abdominal pain and a sensation of flashing lights. What would be the
appropriate initial investigation?
Scenario
11
A woman with BMI of 35 attends for her combined Downs
syndrome screening test. She complains of pain behind her eyes. The pain is
worst last thing at night before she goes to sleep or if she has to get up in
the night. She has noticed she has noticed horizontal diplopia on several
occasions. She has no other symptoms. Examination shows papilloedema.
Scenario
12
A grande multip of 40 years experienced sudden-onset,
severe headache, vomited several times and then collapsed, all within the space
of 30 minutes. She is admitted urgently in a semi-comatose state. Examination
shows neck-stiffness and left hemi-paresis.
Scenario
13.
What did the MMR include as “red flags”
for headache in pregnancy?
These are not on the option list – you need to dig them out of your head.
This is not an
EMQ. It relates to the incidence of various conditions in women who have
migraine. Choose the appropriate arrow for each.
Option
list.
|
A |
asthma |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
|
B |
developmental
dysplasia of the hip in child |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
|
C |
diabetes |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
|
D |
Down’s
syndrome in child |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
|
E |
hypertension |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
|
F |
ischaemic
heart disease |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
|
G |
PET |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
|
H |
stroke |
↔ |
↑ |
↓ |
Scenario 15.
Which of the
following drugs is contraindicated in the prophylaxis of migraine in pregnancy?
Option
list.
|
A |
amitriptyline |
|
B |
ß-blockers |
|
C |
ergotamine |
|
D |
low-dose
aspirin |
|
E |
pizotifen |
|
F |
pregabalin |
|
G |
tricyclic
antidepressants |
|
H |
verapamil |
Scenario
16.
Which, if any,
of the following statements is true about posterior reversible encephalopathy
syndrome. This is not a true EMQ as there may be > 1 true answer.
Option
list.
|
A |
‘thunderclap’
headache is typical |
|
B |
‘handclap’
headache is typical |
|
C |
classically
occurs in the early puerperium and is recurrent |
|
D |
classically
occurs in the early puerperium and is not recurrent |
|
E |
arterial
beading is typically seen on MRI |
|
F |
arterial
beating is typically seen on MRI |
|
G |
arterial
bleeding is typically seen on MRI |
|
H |
venous
beading is typically seen on MRI |
|
I |
venous
beating is typically seen on MRI |
|
J |
venous
bleeding is typically seen on MRI |
|
K |
diagnosis
requires lumbar puncture and evidence of ↑ CSF pressure |
|
L |
treatment is
with nimodipine |
Scenario
17.
Which, if any,
of the following statements is true about reversible cerebral vasoconstriction
syndrome. This is not a true EMQ as there may be > 1 true answer.
Option
list.
|
A |
‘thunderclap’
headache is typical |
|
B |
‘handclap’
headache is typical |
|
C |
classically
occurs in the early puerperium and is recurrent |
|
D |
classically
occurs in the early puerperium and is not recurrent |
|
E |
arterial
beading is typically seen on MRI |
|
F |
arterial
beating is typically seen on MRI |
|
G |
arterial
bleeding is typically seen on MRI |
|
H |
venous
beading is typically seen on MRI |
|
I |
venous
beating is typically seen on MRI |
|
J |
venous
bleeding is typically seen on MRI |
|
K |
diagnosis
requires lumbar puncture and evidence of ↑ CSF pressure |
|
L |
treatment is
with nimodipine |
Questions from TOG article by Revell &
Moorish. 2014. They are open access.
Red
flag features for headaches include:
1. headache that changes with posture True / False
2. associated vomiting True / False
3. occipital location True / False
4. associated visual disturbance. True / False
Migraine
is classically,
5. bilateral. True / False
6. pulsating. True / False
7. aggravated by physical exercise. True / False
With
regard to migraine headaches in pregnancy,
8. there is an increase in the frequency of
attacks without aura. True / False
9. women who suffer from this have not been
shown to have an increase in the risk of pre-eclampsia. True / False
10. the 5HT1-receptor sumatriptan has been shown
to be teratogenic. True / False
11. women presenting with an aura for the first time
are not at an increased risk of intracranial disease. True / False
Posterior
reversible encephalopathy syndrome,
12. is associated with an impairment of the
autoregulatory mechanism which maintains constant cerebral blood flow where
there are blood pressure fluctuations. True / False
13. when it is associated with pre-eclampsia,
management should follow the pathway for managing severe pre-eclampsia. True / False
With
regard to cerebral venous thrombosis,
14. the incidence in western countries in
pregnancy ranges from 1 in 2500 deliveries to 1 in 10 000 deliveries. True / False
15. the greatest risk in pregnancy is mainly in
the last four weeks. True / False
16. the most common site is the sagittal sinus. True / False
17. a plain computed tomography is a highly
sensitive investigation. True / False
18. T2-weighted magnetic resonance imaging has
been shown to have limited value in diagnosis.
True /
False
19. the outcome is better when it is associated
with pregnancy and the puerperium compared to that occurring outside pregnancy.
True / False
20. when it occurs in pregnancy, it is a
contraindication for future pregnancies. True / False
28. EMQ.
Semmelweis, Gordon and Holmes.
Which, if any, of the following statements
are true in relation to Semmelweis?
Option
list.
|
A |
his full name was Ignác Fülöp Semmelweis, but he was
known to friends as "Naci". |
|
B |
he lived from 1818 to 1865 |
|
C |
he revolutionised understanding of ‘childbed fever’ |
|
D |
he revolutionised understanding of rheumatic fever |
|
E |
he revolutionised understanding of tuberculosis |
|
F |
he pioneered proton beam therapy |
|
G |
his professional ‘Damascene moment’ came after the
death of his colleague, Kolletschka, at the hands of a medical student in
1847 |
|
H |
his work was vilified by the majority of his
professional contemporaries |
|
I |
he died in a lunatic asylum |
|
J |
he died in a road traffic accident |
|
K |
he died at home in bed with his mistress |
Which, if any, of the following statements
are true in relation to Gordon?
Option
list.
|
A |
his full name was Hamish Gordon, but he was known to
friends as "Hamy". |
|
B |
he lived from 1801 to 1864 |
|
C |
he revolutionised understanding of ‘childbed fever’ |
|
D |
he revolutionised understanding of rheumatic fever |
|
E |
he revolutionised understanding of tuberculosis |
|
F |
he pioneered proton beam therapy |
|
G |
his professional ‘Damascene moment’ came after
epidemics of erysipelas and puerperal fever in Aberdeen in the late 18th.
century |
|
H |
his work was vilified by the majority of his
professional contemporaries |
|
I |
he died in a lunatic asylum |
|
J |
he died in a road traffic accident |
|
K |
he died at home in bed with his mistress |
Scenario 3.
Which, if any,
of the following statements are true in relation to Wendell Holmes?
Option list.
|
A |
his full name was
Wendell Holmes, but he was known to friends as "Wellie". |
|
B |
he lived from 1801 to
1864 |
|
C |
he revolutionised
understanding of ‘childbed fever’ |
|
D |
he revolutionised
understanding of rheumatic fever |
|
E |
he revolutionised
understanding of tuberculosis |
|
F |
he pioneered proton beam
therapy |
|
G |
he was a fan of the work
of Gordon. |
|
H |
his work on childbed
fever was vilified by the majority of his professional contemporaries |
|
I |
he died in a lunatic
asylum |
|
J |
he died in a road
traffic accident |
|
K |
he died at home in bed
with his mistress |
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