12 June 2023.
31 |
Jenny Myers. Diabetes in pregnancy |
32 |
EMQ. Phenylketonuria |
33 |
EMQ. Hepatitis
D |
34 |
EMQ. Cervical cancer staging |
Try to answer all the questions without preparation before
the tutorial – this helps facts stick in
long-term memory. Use ‘intelligent guessing’ for those you have no clue about.
31. Jenny Myers. Diabetes in pregnancy.
Jenny is Professor
of Obstetrics & Maternal Medicine at the University of Manchester and a Consultant
Obstetrician at St Mary’s Hospital, the main teaching hospital in Manchester.
She is Lead for the Manchester Maternal Medicine Service and has special
interest in diabetes and hypertension. She brings clarity to the latest, best
practice. It is best if you join live as she is happy to deal with questions,
but her talk will be available to download from Dropbox.
32. EMQ. Phenylketonuria.
Abbreviations.
IUGR: intrauterine
growth retardation.
PA: phenylalanine.
PAH: phenylalanine
hydroxylase.
PAHD: phenylalanine
hydroxylase deficiency.
PARD: phenylalanine-restricted
diet.
PKU: phenylketonuria .
PPP: pregnancy
prevention programme.
Option
list.
autosomal dominant |
|
B |
autosomal recessive |
C |
X-linked dominant |
D |
X-linked recessive |
E |
1 in 100,000 |
F |
1 in 50,000 |
G |
1 in 10,000 |
H |
1 in 5,000 |
I |
deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase |
J |
deficiency in phenylalanine oxidase |
K |
deficiency in phenylalanine transferase |
L |
deficiency in phenylketone hydroxylase |
M |
deficiency in phenylketone oxidase |
N |
raised PA levels |
O |
reduced PA levels |
P |
raised tyrosine levels |
Q |
reduced tyrosine levels |
R |
normal tyrosine levels |
S |
No |
T |
Yes |
U |
unknown |
Question
1.
What is PKU?
Write your answer – there is no option list.
Question 2.
What is PKU
due to? Use the option list.
Question 3.
What levels
of PA and Tyr are typical in PKU? Use the option list. This is not a real EMQ
as there are two answers.
Question 4.
Is PKU
subdivided into different categories? If “yes”, what are the categories? Write
your answer – there is no option
list.
Question 5.
Which, if
any, of the following statements are true about hyperphenylalaninaemia?
This is not a true EMQ as more
than one answer may be correct.
Option
List
A |
it blocks growth hormone |
B |
it destroys astrocyte miosis |
C |
it disrupts folic acid activity |
D |
it enhances vitamin A activity |
E |
it interferes with myelin
synthesis |
F |
it negates the effects of vitamin C |
G |
nobody knows, nobody cares; especially me |
Question 6.
How is PKU
inherited? Use the option list.
Question 7.
Which chromosome
houses the gene related to PKU transmission?
Question 8.
How many
mutations of the gene related to PKU have so far been identified?
Question 9.
Is a person
with PKU likely to have one or two mutations of the PKU gene?
Question 10.
What is BH4?
Question 11.
What is
pegvaliase?
Question 12.
What is the
approximate prevalence of PKU in Caucasians?
Question 13.
What is the
approximate prevalence of PKU carrier status in Caucasians?
Question 14.
The
prevalence of PKU varies between ethnic groups. Match each of the following
ethnic groups to the closest prevalence given in the option list.
Question 15.
Which, if
any, of the following are characteristic of PKU?
Option
list.
A |
alopecia |
B |
angst |
C |
facial dysmorphism |
D |
facial hair in females and
pre-pubertal males |
E |
kyphosis |
F |
macroorchidism in post-pubertal
males |
Question 16.
Are fetal PA
levels higher or lower than maternal?
Question 17.
Which, if
any, of the following are true in
relation to the maternal PKU syndrome?
This is not a true EMQ as there
may be more than correct answer.
Option list.
A |
asymptomatic bacteruria is more
common |
B |
cholestasis of pregnancy is
more common |
C |
early onset gestational
hypertension is more common |
D |
eczema is more common |
E |
gallstones are more common |
F |
miscarriage is more common |
G |
MPKUS is usually due to
non-adherence to a low phenylalanine diet |
H |
porphyria is more common |
I |
reversible posterior cerebral
syndrome is more common |
J |
urinary tract urea stones are
more common |
K |
none of the above |
Question 18.
What are the
main consequences for the offspring of untreated maternal PKU?
Question 19.
Is neonatal
screening for PKU routine in the UK?
Question 20.
The test for
PKU used to be known by the name of its inventor. Who was he and why
did he have a particular
interest? There is no option list and no one is going to ask you except me!
Question 21. What conditions are covered in the routine
neonatal ‘heelprick’ screening test?
Question
22. Is neonatal screening for PKU still done using the
bacterial inhibition method? If not,
what method is used? There is no option list.
Question
23. What is the main treatment of PKU and what are its
problems?
Question
24. How long should the main treatment of PKU be continued
and why?
Question 25.
A woman with
PKU is planning her first pregnancy at the age of 22. She has been off
the PKU-restricted diet since the
age of 10 and can barely remember being on it. Should she be advised to
re-start the diet? If ‘yes’, when should she start and what explanation would
you give for the advice?
Question 26.
Which if any
of the following statements are true about screening for PKU and its
effects in the neonate born to a
woman with PKU ?
Option list.
A |
routine bloodspot screening
alone is required |
B |
the neonate should be examined
by a paediatrician for signs of PKU |
C |
the baby should have
developmental assessment, even if it does not have PKU |
D |
an ultrasound scan should be
done because of the increased risk of developmental dysplasia of the hip |
E |
the baby should be started on a
low PA diet until all assessments are complete |
F |
none of the above. |
Question 27.
Is
breast-feeding advisable for women with PKU?
Question 28.
Are any other
therapeutic approaches available? If ‘yes’, what are they and how do
they work? If ‘yes’ use the
option list for the mode of action.
Option
List
A |
it binds PA to circulating
plasma proteins, reducing its free levels |
B |
it increases hepatic metabolism of PAH. |
C |
it increases renal excretion of PA |
D |
it is a co-factor for PAH, increasing its efficacy in reducing
PA levels |
E |
it is phenylalanine ammonia lyase, capable of breaking down PA |
F |
it is a synthetic PAH enzyme |
G |
it reduces absorption of PA from the small bowel |
Question 29.
Is PIGD for
PKU available on the NHS? Yes / No?
Question 30.
Which
organisation regulates PIGD in the UK?
TOG
CPD questions. These are open-access, so reproduced here.
Regarding
phenylketonuria (PKU):
1. it is a deficiency
of the amino acid phenylalanine (Phe). True False
2. it is an
X-linked recessive inherited metabolic disease. True False
3. it results
in a deficiency in the amino acid tyrosine. True False
4. it is
treated with a low-phenylalanine restricted diet. True False
5. the
incidence is approximately 1:1000. True False
6. the
Newborn Screening Programme has been a great success in the diagnosis and
management of children with PKU. True False
7. neonates
with fetal alcohol syndrome and PKU are clinically difficult to distinguish at
birth. True False
8. in utero
exposure to very high levels of phenylalanine results in reversible
neurological damage to the fetus. True False
9. pregnancy
outcome is improved substantially when treatment results in low maternal
phenylalanine concentrations ideally before conception.
True False
10. oral
methods of contraception should be switched to barrier methods at least 12
months before conception. True False
11. the risk of
congenital heart defects is estimated to be 7–10%. True False
12. it is an
indication for early delivery by caesarean section. True False
13. neonates
born to mothers with PKU should be offered screening for PKU as per the routine
national screening programme. True False
14. breastfeeding
is contraindicated in women with PKU. True False
With regard to the biochemistry of
PKU:
15. Phe is
passively transported across the placenta. True False
16. fetal Phe
levels are approximately 1.25-2.5 times > than maternal levels. True False
Children
born to women with PKU:
17. tend to
have blue eyes. True False
18. are fair
skinned. True False
With regard to the effect of high
Phe levels on loss of IQ or behavioural changes:
19. these
changes are reversible in utero. True False
20. they are
reversible with resumption of diet deficient of Phe. True False
33. Hepatitis
D. Hepatitis Delta.
Abbreviations:
HBsAg: hepatitis
B surface antigen
HBsAb: antibody
to hepatitis B surface antigen
HBV: hepatitis
B virus
HCsAg: hepatitis C surface antigen
HDV: hepatitis
D virus; hepatitis delta virus
HEsAg: hepatitis
E surface antigen
Question 1.
Which, if any, of the
following statements are true in relation to HDV? This is not a true EMQ as
there may be >1 correct answer.
Option list.
A |
HDV is a large DNA virus |
B |
HDV is a defective virus |
C |
HDV gains entry to human
cells via the HDV receptor |
D |
HDV gains entry to human
cells by donning a disguise and using the HBV receptor |
E |
HDV only flourishes when
HBsAb is present |
F |
HDV only flourishes when
HBsAg is present |
G |
Coi coinfection is when HDV and another viral
infection are present at the same time |
H |
Susu superinfection is when
HDV is present in abnormally high numbers |
I |
HDV infection is the least
serious of the viral hepatitides in relation to pregnancy |
J |
HDV treatment was
revolutionised by analysis of the benefits of drinking bleach as suggested by
Donald Trump |
K |
the WHO has recommended that those who follow
medical advice from Donald trump should be categorised as ‘having the DTs’. |
L |
HDV needs the presence of
HBsAg to be a significant pathogen |
M |
HDV needs the presence of HCsAg
to be a significant pathogen |
N |
HDV needs the presence of HEsAg
to be a significant pathogen |
O |
ppe pegylated interferon alpha is highly
effective as treatment |
P |
m mother-to-child transmission is mainly
via the placenta |
Q |
WHO recommends tenofovir prophylaxis
from 28 weeks in pregnancy in HDV infected women |
R |
the infected neonate should be given HDV
vaccine |
34. Cervical cancer staging.
Cervical cancer staging.
Option list.
A |
Micro-invasive cervical cancer. |
B |
Stage IA1 |
C |
Stage IA2 |
D |
Stage IA3 |
E |
Stage IB1 |
F |
Stage IB2 |
G |
Stage IB3 |
H |
Stage IIA |
I |
Stage IIB |
J |
Stage IIC |
K |
Stage IIIa |
L |
Stage IIIB |
M |
Stage IIIC |
N |
Stage IVA |
O |
Stage IVB |
P |
Stage IVC |
Q |
Stage VA |
R |
Stage VB |
S |
Stage VC |
T |
None of the above. |
Scenario 1. A woman of
25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma
penetrating to a depth of 2 mm and 6 mm in width. The resection margins are
tumour-free. There is no evidence of spread outside the uterus. She is
nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 2. A woman of 25 has a cone biopsy. The
histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma penetrating to a depth of 4 mm
and 6 mm in width. The resection margins are tumour-free. There is no evidence
of spread outside the uterus. She is nulliparous and wishes to retain her
fertility.
Scenario 3. A woman of
25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma
penetrating to a depth of 5 mm and 6 mm in width. The resection margins are not
tumour-free. There is no evidence of spread outside the uterus. She is
nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 4. A woman of
25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma
penetrating to a depth of 6 mm and 3 cm in width. The resection margins are
tumour-free. There is no evidence of extension outside the cervix. She is
nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 5. A woman of
25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma
penetrating to a depth of 6 mm and 5 cm in width. The resection margins are
tumour-free. She is nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 6. A woman of
38 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma
penetrating to a depth of 4 mm and 6mm in width. The resection margins are
tumour-free. An MR scan shows involvement of the lymphatic nodes in the left of
the pelvis.
Scenario 7. A woman of
45 has carcinoma of the cervix. It extends into the parametrium, but not to the
pelvic sidewall. It involves the upper 1/3 of the vagina. There is MRI evidence
of para-aortic node involvement.
Scenario 8. A woman of
55 has carcinoma of the cervix. It extends to the pelvic sidewall. It involves
the upper 1/3 of the vagina. She has a secondary on the end of her nose.
Scenario 9. A woman of
55 has carcinoma of the cervix. It involves the bladder mucosa.
Scenario 10. A woman of
35 has a proven cancer of the cervix with extension into the right parametrium,
but not to the pelvic sidewall. Left hydroureter and left non-functioning
kidney are noted on IVP and there is no other explanation for the findings.
Cystoscopy shows bullous oedema of the bladder mucosa.
Scenario 11. A woman of
25 has a cone biopsy. It shows malignant melanoma. The lesion, which was not
visible to the naked eye, invades to a depth of 3 mm and is 5 mm in width. The
margins of the biopsy are clear. There is evidence of lymphatic vessel
involvement. There is no evidence of spread outside the uterus.
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