Tuesday, 19 August 2025

MRCOG tutorial Thursday 21st. August 2025

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21 August 2025.                                       Role-players: 1.

                                                                    Role-players: 2.

 

23

Role-play.

24

Role-play.

25

SBA. Chickenpox and pregnancy

26

SBA. Yellow card reporting system

 

                                                                                          

23.     Role-play 1. Candidate’s instructions will be e-mailed shortly before the tutorial.

 

24.     Role-play 1. Candidate’s instructions will be e-mailed shortly before the tutorial.

 

25.      Chickenpox + pregnancy.

Introduction.

This is a regular topic in the exam. The Green Book updated its advice on post-exposure prophylaxis in 2022 which probably brought it to the minds of examiners.

Abbreviations.

FVS:            fetal varicella syndrome

VZV:           varicella-zoster virus

VZIg:           varicella-zoster immunoglobulin

Question 1.     What type of virus causes chickenpox?     

A

avian virus

B

herpes virus

C

retrovirus

D

picovirus

E

pox virus

Question 2.     Which of the following best describes the chickenpox virus

A

DNA virus

B

RNA virus

C

Prion

D

All of the above

E

None of the above

Question 3.     What is the main reservoir of the chickenpox virus?

A

domestic chickens

B

chickens in battery farms

C

sparrows

D

humans

E

earthworms

Question 4.     Which, if any of the following are true about how chickenpox is spread?

A

via respiratory droplets

B

direct contact with the fluid from the vesicles

C

contact with fomites

D

contact with stalactites

E

from lavatory seats

Question 5.     Fomites - which of the following statements are true?

A

fomites are bedclothes infested with bed bugs which can carry the chickenpox virus

B

“fomites” in Latin is the plural of “fomes”, the noun meaning “tinder” in English

C

fomites are inanimate objects that can effect the transfer of communicable diseases from the infected person to someone who is not infected

D

fomites are horizontal stalagmites, particularly found in the Dolomite mountains and capable of fostering the growth of viruses, including the chickenpox virus

E

fomites are the viral particles in vomit that form the aerosols particularly associated with the respiratory spread of viruses such as the chickenpox virus.

Question 6.     Which, if any, of the following are listed in GTG13 as examples of fomites?

A

bathtubs used by person with chickenpox at the infectious stage

B

bedding

C

blood, fresh or dried, from person with chickenpox at the infectious stage

D

clothing

E

hair

F

paper money

G

skin cells

H

viral remnants in vomit from person with chickenpox at the infectious stage

Question 7.        With regard to the epidemiology of chickenpox in the UK, which of the following statements are true?

A

Chickenpox is endemic

B

Chickenpox is endemic with mini-epidemics every 3-4 years in the early part of the year

C

The main reservoir is chickens, particularly those that are reared intensively

D

The main reservoir is human sensory nerve root ganglia after primary infection

E

The main reservoir is fomites

Question 8.     What proportion of the ante-natal population of the UK is immune to chickenpox?

A

   50%

B

   60%

C

   70%

D

   80%

E

   90%

F

≥ 90%

Question 9.        Which population of immigrant women is least likely to have immunity to chickenpox?

A

Middle-Eastern

B

Those from Antarctica

C

Those from the EEC

D

Those from tropical and sub-tropical Africa

E

One-eyed Mongolians with the bad habit of spitting in public

Question 10.  What is the incidence of chickenpox in pregnancy in the UK?

A

1 in 1,000

 

B

3 in 1,000

 

C

5 in 1,000

 

 

D

8 in 1,000

 

E

14 in 1,000

 

 

20 in 1,000

 

Question 11.  What is the usual presentation of chickenpox in a child?

A

Mild fever with malaise  then vesicles which appear after 2 days and  disappear after 4 – 5 days

B

Mild fever with malaise  then vesicles which appear after 2 days and  disappear after about 7 days

C

Mild fever, malaise, pruritic maculopapules that develop into vesicles and normally crust over within 5 days

D

Mild fever, malaise, pruritic maculopapules that develop into vesicles and normally crust over within 7 days

E

Mild fever, malaise, pruritic maculopapules that develop into vesicles and normally crust over within 10 days

Question 12.  What is the duration of infectivity after primary infection?

A

From the onset of fever until 48 hours after the vesicles form

B

From the onset of fever until 5 days after the vesicles form

C

From 48 hours before the development of the vesicles until 5 days later.

D

From 48 hours before the development of the vesicles until they crust over

E

From the development of the vesicles until 5 days later.

F

From the development of the vesicles until they crust over

Question 13.  A woman books at 8 weeks. Her 6-year-old son lives with her and has recently

developed chickenpox? She is tested and found to be non-immune. What is her risk of infection from the domestic contact with her son?

A

50%

B

60%

C

70%

D

80%

E

90%

Question 14.  Which of the following contacts with a case of chickenpox would be significant?

A

contact with the mother of a child who has just developed the typical chickenpox rash

B

contact with the mother of a child who has not developed the typical chickenpox rash

C

a four-hour journey on a school bus with 20 children, one of whom develops the typical chickenpox rash the next day

D

having a coffee with a neighbour who is having chemotherapy and has just developed shingles

E

visiting a neighbour who has developed ophthalmic shingles and has been admitted to an old-fashioned 20-bed ward

F

having a coffee with an 80-year-old neighbour who is in good health but has just had recurrence of thoracic shingles.

Question 15.  In relation to shingles, which, if any, of the following statements are true?

A

Shingles is due to reactivation of the virus which has lain dormant in the sensory nerve root ganglia

B

Shingles is due to reactivation of the virus which has lain dormant in the motor nerve root ganglia

C

Shingles is due to reactivation of the virus which has lain dormant in the autonomic nerve root ganglia

D

Shingles should always be regarded as infectious.

E

Shingles in the immuno-compromised should always be regarded as infectious.

F

Ophthalmic shingles should always be regarded as infectious

Question 16. This is about prophylaxis with chickenpox vaccine.

Which of the following statements are true? Pick the best option from the option list.

A

Chickenpox vaccine does not exist.

B

Chickenpox vaccine uses a killed virus of the Okra strain.

C

Chickenpox vaccine uses an attenuated virus of the Oka strain.

D

All children who have not had chickenpox should be offered the vaccine after 1 year of age.

E

Women should be screened for immune status as part of pre-pregnancy counselling or fertility treatment with ART

Question 17.  This relates to vaccination in early pregnancy

A 25-year-old woman is given varicella vaccine. Her period is due the next day, but does not occur. A pregnancy test a few days later is +ve. What should be the management?

A

She should be advised that there is a 5% risk of congenital varicella syndrome and be offered TOP.

B

She should be advised that there is a 10% risk of congenital varicella syndrome and be offered TOP.

C

She should be advised that the level of risk of congenital varicella syndrome after vaccination in early pregnancy is unknown and be offered TOP.

D

She should be advised that the level of risk of congenital varicella syndrome after vaccination in early pregnancy is unknown and be offered referral to a feto-maternal medicine expert.

E

She should be advised that inadvertent vaccination has been studied for > 20 years no evidence has been found to harm to the mother or child.

F

She should be advised that the vaccine contains no live virus and cannot cause fetal infection.

Question 18.      A woman has been referred to the booking clinic by her GP. Screening for immunity to chickenpox showed her to be seronegative. What advice would you give her?

A

Advise her that there is no risk unless she comes into contact with a case of chickenpox or shingles and to speak to GP or midwife if possible contact occurs.

B

Advise her to have the chickenpox vaccine because of the 10% risk and high mortality associated with varicella in pregnancy.

C

Advise her to have VZIG to reduce her risk of infection.

D

Advise her to take oral acyclovir until two weeks post-delivery.

E

None of the above.

Question 19.      A woman is referred to the booking clinic by her GP for urgent assessment as she was in contact with a case of chickenpox two days before. What action should be taken?

A

take a detailed history to determine the significance of the contact and her history of and likely immunity to chickenpox.

B

check for VZV immunity if there is a history of a significant contact and possibility that she is not immune.

C

if the contact was significant and the tests for VZV immunity show her to be seronegative, offer oral acyclovir

D

if the contact was significant and the tests for VZV immunity show her to be seronegative, offer VZIg

E

if the contact was significant and the tests for VZV immunity show her to be seronegative, offer oral acyclovir + VZIg

F

if the contact was significant and the tests for VZV show her to be seronegative, discuss TOP.

 

none of the above

Question 20.  Which, if any, of the following statements about VZIg are correct?

A

VZIg is manufactured using recombinant technology

B

VZIg is effective in pregnancy when given within 10 days of the contact

C

If VZIg is given, the woman is potentially infectious for up to 28 days

D

Repeat doses of VZIg should not be given in the event of repeated significant contact

E

There are reliable supplies of VZIg and no problems regarding availability

Question 21.      How does the administration of VZIG affect the duration of infectivity for the woman?

A

With no VZIG she is potentially infectious from day 8 to 28.

B

VZIG destroys virus and the woman is potentially infections from day 8 to 21.

C

VZIG does not alter the period in which the woman is potentially infections.

D

VZIG reduces the risk of shingles in later life

E

None of the above

Question 22.      With regard to established varicella in pregnancy, which, if any, of the following statements are true? Choose the best option from the option list.

A

the main risk to the mother comes from pneumonia, with an incidence of about 10%

B

the main risk to the mother comes from pneumonia, with an incidence of about 40%

C

hepatitis and encephalitis are more common compared to the non-pregnant state

D

mortality from varicella pneumonia have fallen to < 15%

E

the death rate from varicella pneumonia is estimated to be 5 times greater than in the non-pregnant

Question 23.      A GP phones to say that a patient of his at 10 weeks’ gestation has developed the typical rash of chickenpox. Her son had proven chickenpox a couple of weeks previously. She had been tested and found to be non-immune, but declined VZIG. Which, if any of the following statements would you include in your advice to the GP.

A

admit the woman for assessment, VZIG and acyclovir after counselling re risks and benefits.

B

arrange for her to be seen in the next antenatal clinic.

C

advise re prevention of secondary bacterial infection of the lesions

D

advise about her avoiding contact with susceptible individuals until at least 7 days after the lesions crust over

E

advise the GP of the criteria for hospital admission and the need for the woman to be informed of them.

F

advise the GP to discuss the risks and benefits of acyclovir 800mg five times daily for seven days and to prescribe it if the woman agrees.

G

advise that acyclovir is contraindicated once the rash appears

H

advise that VZIG is ineffectual once the rash has appeared

I

advise that acyclovir is not licensed for use in pregnancy and any use would be ‘off-label’.

J

advise that acyclovir is potentially teratogenic and not to be used in the 1st. trimester.

Question 24.What kind of drug is aciclovir?

Question 25.  How effective is aciclovir?

Question 26.      Which, if any, of the following statements are true in relation to the diagnosis of fetal varicella syndrome?

A

detailed ultrasound examination by a fetal medicine expert should be offered

B

fetal MRI is superior to US examination and should be the 1ry test if available

C

amniocentesis should be offered as detection of varicella DNA makes FVS probable

D

amniocentesis should be done as early as possible, avoiding any varicella lesions

E

PCR which is –ve for varicella DNA in amniotic fluid has a strong NPV for FVS

 

PCR which is +ve for varicella DNA in amniotic fluid has a strong PPV for FVS

Question 27.      Which, if any, of the following statements are true in relation to fetal varicella syndrome?

A

FVS occurs in relation to 1ry. infection in-utero

B

FVS occurs in relation to 2ry. infection in-utero

C

the risk of FVS is ~ 5% when 1ry. infection in-utero  occurs < 13 weeks

D

the risk of FVS is ~ 10% when 1ry. infection in-utero  occurs between 13  and 20 weeks

E

the risk of FVS is greatest when 1ry. infection in-utero occurs within 4 weeks of birth

Question 28.      Which, if any, of the following statements are true in relation to administration of varicella vaccine in pregnancy.

A

varicella vaccine is a recombinant vaccine and licensed for use in pregnancy

B

varicella vaccine contains a live, attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy

C

varicella vaccine contains a live, attenuated vaccine and is safe to use after 12 weeks

D

TOP should be advised if varicella vaccine is given in the 1st. trimester

E

VZV immunoglobulin should be given if varicella vaccine is given in the 1st. trimester

F

varicella vaccine should not be given to women who are breastfeeding

Question 29.  Which, if any, of the following are true in relation to neonatal varicella (NV)

A

the risk of NV is 90% with fetal infection in the 1st. trimester

B

the risk of NV is 50% with fetal infection in the 2nd. trimester

C

the risk of NV is 10% with fetal infection in the 4 weeks before delivery

D

planned delivery should be delayed, if safe, until 7 days after start of the maternal rash

E

women with active chickenpox should not breastfeed until 10 days after the lesions crust

Question 30.  Is chickenpox notifiable?

 

26.      Yellow Card Reporting System. SBA. Questions.

Abbreviations.

BNF:      British National Formulary.

MHRA: Medicines & Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

YCRS:    Yellow Card Reporting System.

Scenario 1. What is the purpose of the YCRS?

A

to report suspected side-effects of air pollution

B

to report suspected side-effects of alcohol

C

to report suspected side-effects of e-cigarettes

D

to report suspected side-effects of medical device use

E

to report defective or fake medical products

F

to report sellers of defective or fake medical products

G

none of the above.

Scenario 2. Which organisation runs the YCRS?

A

British National Formulary

B

Metropolitan Police

C

MHRA

D

NHS

E

NICE

F

Royal College of Medicine

G

none of the above

Scenario 3. How does one report an issue using the YCRS?

A

completing a form from the BNF and posting it to ‘FREEPOST YELLOW CARD’

B

completing a form from the BNF and posting it to ‘Metropolitan Police’

C

completing a form from the BNF and posting it to ‘FREEPOST MHRA’

D

completing a form from the BNF and posting it to ‘FREEPOST NHS’

E

completing a form from the BNF and posting it to ‘FREEPOST ’NICE’

F

completing a form from the BNF and posting it to ‘FREEPOST ’Royal College of Medicine’

G

on-line at https://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/

H

none of the above