Friday, 15 August 2014

Tutorial 14 August 2014

Website.
Contact us.

There was no tutorial. These are the topics we would have covered.
Don't waste time researching. Just write the answers using what you already know.
I'll try to ensure all the necessary facts are in my answers.

21
EMQ. Cervical smear management & referral.
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2014
22
EMQ. Antepartum haemorrhage.
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23
EMQ. Ca Cx staging.
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2014
24
EMQ. Drugs in O&G 1.
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August
2014
71
With regard to the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act:
1. When was the latest update of the Act and what were the key amendments .       4 marks
2. With regard to the body that oversees the implementation of the Act:
               What is it called?                   1 mark
               What kind of body is it?       1 mark
3. What are the main functions of the body that oversees implementation of the Act?   14 marks
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2014
72
There has been a recent spate of requests for Caesarean section with no medical grounds. The Clinical Director has asked you to produce a provisional policy document on the subject for discussion at a Unit meeting with a view to formulating Unit policy.
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73
With regard to vulval cancer.
1. critically evaluate screening.                                                2 marks.
2. outline the FIGO staging system.                                         6 marks.
3. critically evaluate the modern approach to management.
                                                                                                      12 marks
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August
2014
74
With regard to UKOSS.
1. What is UKOSS?                                                                                 2 marks
2. Who is responsible for UKOSS and how does it work?               4 marks
3. Critically evaluate the work of UKOSS.                                       14 marks
14
August
2014

Cervical smear management & referral.
Lead-in.
There are too many scenarios and the option list is too long. And some of the “scenarios” are really MCQs. Don’t tell me – I know! I have tried to think of all the questions that could arise. At some point I’ll chop it into several bits to make the option list more sensible. A smaller option list would also allow me to introduce more “tempters” that sound as though they should be the correct answer.

The following scenarios relate to the management of cervical smears.
Pick one option from the option list.
Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Abbreviations.
ALOs:              actinomyces-like organisms
BSCCP            British Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology. http://www.bsccp.org.uk/
CIN:                 cervical intraepithelial abnormality
CGIN:             cervical glandular intraepithelial abnormality
FSRH:              Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health: http://www.fsrh.org/
GUM clinic:  genito-urinary medicine clinic
LBC:                 liquid-based cytology
LLETZ:             large loop excision of the transformation zone
NEC:                normal endometrial cell
NHSCSP:        NHS Cervical Screening Programme: http://www.cancerscreening.nhs.uk/cervical/
                         http://www.cancerscreening.nhs.uk/cervical/index.html
POP:               progesterone-only Pill
TZ:                   transformation zone

Option list.
a.         repeat the test
b.        repeat the test after 6 months
c.         repeat the test at 6 and 12 months
d.        repeat the test at 6 and 12 months and then annually until she has had 10 years’ follow-up followed by repeat tests at the normal intervals for her age
e.        repeat the test after 3 or 5 years according to her age as per routine follow-up
f.          repeat the test after HPV testing
g.         repeat the test after giving an appropriate antibiotic
h.        repeat the test after removing her IUCD.
i.           repeat the test after removing the IUCD and giving an appropriate antibiotic
j.          repeat the test after treating the TZ with diathermy
k.         repeat the test after treating the TZ with cryocautery
l.           discharge from follow-up
m.      refer for colposcopy
n.        refer for colposcopy within 2 weeks
o.        refer for colposcopy within 8 weeks
p.        refer for colposcopy within 12 weeks
q.        refer for colposcopy only if she has other significant signs or symptoms
r.          refer for cone biopsy
s.         refer for fractional curettage
t.          refer for “see and treat” LLETZ
u.        refer to GUM clinic
v.         recommend that she go back to America
w.       there is insufficient information to formulate a management plan
x.         false
y.         true
z.         none of the above
Scenario 1.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has a routine smear showing an inadequate sample . What management will you suggest?
Scenario 2.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing borderline nuclear changes.  What management will you suggest?
Scenario 3.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing borderline nuclear changes. Cervical ectopy is noted.  What management will you suggest?
Scenario 4.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing borderline cells of endocervical origin. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 5.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing inflammatory changes.  What management will you suggest?
Scenario 6.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing  inflammatory changes and ALOs. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 7.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing  inflammatory changes. She takes the COC for contraception. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 8.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing  inflammatory changes. She has a copper IUCD. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 9.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing  inflammatory changes and ALOs. She has had hysteroscopic sterilisation with ESSURE. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 10
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing borderline changes. A repeat smear after 6 months is normal. A repeat smear after 3 years shows inflammatory changes. A repeat smear after 6 months is normal. A repeat smear after 3 years shows borderline changes. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 11
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing mild dyskaryosis of squamous cells. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 12
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing moderate dyskaryosis of squamous cells. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 13
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing severe dyskaryosis of squamous cells. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 14
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear suggestive invasive disease. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 15
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing borderline nuclear changes in glandular cells. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 16
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing ? glandular neoplasia. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 17.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing normal endometrial cells. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 18.
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear showing atypical endometrial cells. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 19
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear with a normal result. Clinical examination was normal, but contact bleeding was noted when the smear was taken. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 20
An American woman with no previous abnormal smears has been used to having annual smears. She has had a smear with a normal result and requests a repeat in 12 months. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 21
A woman with no previous abnormal smears is on renal dialysis and has had a smear with a normal result. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 22
A HIV +ve woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear with a normal result. What management will you suggest?


Scenario 23
A woman with no previous abnormal smears has had a smear with a normal result. She smokes 20 cigarettes daily and has a long history of recurrent genital warts. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 24.
A woman of 70 presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She had smears at the recommended intervals from the age of 22. All were normal. The last was taken at the age of 64. What is your management in relation to taking a smear?
Scenario 25.
A woman of 55 presents with hot flushes since her periods stopped at the age of 54. She wishes to go on HRT and there are no contraindications. She had smears at the recommended intervals from the age of 25. All were normal. The last was taken two years ago. What is your management in relation to taking a smear?
Scenario 26.
Women who have been treated for CIN are 2 – 5 times more likely to develop cancer than women who have not been treated. True or false?
Scenario 27.
Scenario 27.
More than 50% of women who develop cervical cancer have been lost to follow-up. True or false?
Scenario 28.
Which of the following statements are true and which false?
a.   cone biopsy is linked to ↓risk of recurrence compared to LLETZ.
b.  excision margins that are not CIN-free ↑ the risk of recurrence, with endocervical margins that are not CIN-free posing a greater risk that similar ectocervical margins.
c.   age > 35 years increases the risk of recurrent disease.
d.  follow-up after treatment for CIN should start between 3 & 6 months from the time of treatment.
e.  the initial examination should be with colposcopy plus cytology.
f.   a failure to achieve negative results in the year after treatment means colposcopy should be done.
g.   a required standard for treatment success is that ≥ 90% of women should have no evidence of dyskaryosis in the year after treatment.
h.  a required standard for treatment success is that there should be ≤ 5% of histologically-confirmed treatment failures by 1 year after treatment.
Scenario 29
Women who have had normal follow-up results for 2 years after treatment of CIN 1 can revert to the routine recall.
Scenario 30.
Follow-up should continue with increased frequency for 5 years after treatment of CIN 2 & 3, after which recall at routine intervals is OK if all the follow-up has been normal. True or false?
Scenario 31.
A woman with LLETZ for CIN3 twelve months ago had a normal smear 6 months later. A smear taken  12 months after treatment is also normal. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 32.
A woman with LLETZ for CIN3 twelve months ago had a normal smear 6 months later. A smear taken  12 months after treatment shows mild dyskaryosis. What management will you suggest?
Scenario 33.
A woman on normal recall has hysterectomy for menorrhagia. There is no evidence of CIN on histology. What follow-up would you recommend?
Scenario 34.
A woman who was not on normal recall has hysterectomy for menorrhagia. There is no evidence of CIN on histology. What follow-up would you recommend?

Scenario 35.
Women who have had hysterectomy and require follow-up with vault smears cannot be managed within the NHSCSP. True or False?
Scenario 36.
A woman who was not on normal recall has hysterectomy for menorrhagia. There is evidence of completely excised CIN3 on histology. What follow-up would you recommend?
Scenario 37.
A woman who was not on normal recall has hysterectomy for menorrhagia. There is evidence of incompletely excised CIN3 on histology. What follow-up would you recommend?
Scenario 38.
A woman has conservative treatment for early stage cancer of the cervix. What follow-up should be recommended?
Scenario 39.
A woman is referred with severe dyskaryosis, but colposcopy is normal. What follow-up should be recommended?

Antepartum haemorrhage.
Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to APH.
Pick one option from the option list.
Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Abbreviations.
ART:       assisted reproduction technology
FGR:      fetal growth restriction
GTG:      Green-top guideline no 62
PET:       pre-eclampsia

Option list.
genital tract bleeding ≥ 500 ml. from 24 weeks until the delivery of the baby
genital tract bleeding ≥ 500 ml. from 24 weeks until the delivery of the placenta.
genital tract bleeding ≥ 500 ml. from 24 weeks, or earlier if the baby is live-born, until the delivery of the baby.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
15
20
30
50
100
500
1,000
true
false
none of the above

Scenario 1.
What is the definition of APH?
Scenario 2.
What is the upper limit in ml. for minor APH
Scenario 3.
What is the upper limit in ml. of major haemorrhage
Scenario 4.
What is the % risk of recurrence after 1 abruption?
Scenario 5.
What is the % risk of recurrence after 2 abruptions?
Scenario 6.
What is the major risk factor for placental abruption.
Scenario 7
List 10 risk factors for placental abruption.
Scenario 8
List 6 risk factors for placenta previa.
Scenario 9
In what % of pregnancies does APH occur?
Scenario 10
With regards to steps that can be taken to reduce the incidence of APH, what things would you include in an essay?

EMQ  Ca Cx staging.
Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to cervical cancer staging.
For each, select the most appropriate staging.
Pick one option from the option list.
Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Scenario 1.
A woman of 25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma penetrating to a depth of 2 mm and 6 mm in width. The resection margins are tumour-free. There is no evidence of spread outside the uterus. She is nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 2.
A woman of 25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma penetrating to a depth of 5 mm and 6 mm in width. The resection margins are tumour-free. There is no evidence of spread outside the uterus. She is nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 3.
A woman of 25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma penetrating to a depth of 5 mm and 6 mm in width. The resection margins are not tumour-free. There is no evidence of spread outside the uterus. She is nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 4.
A woman of 25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma penetrating to a depth of 6 mm and 3 cm in width. The resection margins are tumour-free. There is no evidence of extension outside the uterus. She is nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.


Scenario 5.
A woman of 25 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma penetrating to a depth of 6 mm and 5 cm in width. The resection margins are tumour-free. She is nulliparous and wishes to retain her fertility.
Scenario 6.
A woman of 38 has a cone biopsy. The histology report shows squamous cell carcinoma penetrating to a depth of 4 mm and 6mm in width. The resection margins are tumour-free. An MR scan shows involvement of the lymphatic nodes in the left of the pelvis.
Scenario 7.
A woman of 45 has carcinoma of the cervix. It extends into the parametrium, but not to the pelvic side-wall. It involves the upper 1/3 of the vagina. There is MR evidence of para-aortic node involvement.
Scenario 8.
A woman of 55 has carcinoma of the cervix. It extends to the pelvic side-wall. It involves the upper 1/3 of the vagina. She has a secondary on the end of her nose.
Scenario 9.
A woman of 55 has carcinoma of the cervix. It involves the bladder mucosa.
Scenario 10.
A woman of 35 has a proven cancer of the cervix with extension into the right parametrium, but not to the pelvic side-wall. Left hydroureter and left non-functioning kidney are noted on IVP and there is no other explanation for the findings. Cystoscopy shows bullous oedema of the bladder mucosa.
Scenario 11.
A woman of 25 has a cone biopsy. It shows malignant melanoma. The lesion invades to a depth of 3 mm and is 5 mm in width. The margins of the biopsy are clear. There is evidence of lymphatic vessel involvement. There is no evidence of spread outside the uterus.

Option list.
Micro-invasive cervical cancer.
Stage Ia1
Stage Ia2
Stage Ia3
Stage Ib1
Stage Ib2
Stage Ib3
Stage IIa
Stage IIb
Stage IIc
Stage IIIa
Stage IIIb
Stage IIIc
Stage IVa
Stage IVb
Stage IVc
Stage Va
Stage Vb
Stage Vc
None of the above.

This question illustrates the problems surrounding staging. If you are not a cancer specialist, it is not something that you think about very often, if ever. So you have to put it into your list of things to revise in the days before the exam.

Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to drugs & hypertension in pregnancy.
Pick one option from the option list.
Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Abbreviations.
ACE:                angiotensin-converting enzyme.
ACEI:               angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
ARA:               angiotensin II receptor antagonist.
BNF:                British National Formulary.
CNP:               Handbook of Obstetric Medicine. 4th. Edition. Catherine Nelson-Piercy. Informa. 2010
Dewhurst:    Dewhurst’s  Textbook of O&G. Edmonds. 8th. Edition. 2012.  Wiley-Blackwell
DDPL:             Drugs during pregnancy and lactation. Schaeffer et al. 2nd. Edition. 2007. Academic Press.
eMC:              electronic Medicines Compendium UK.
GCE:                German Commission E
L&B:                Obstetrics and Gynaecology: An Evidence-Based Text for MRCOG (2nd edition). Luesley & Baker. 2010.
MAOI:            monoaminoxidase inhibitor.
SAC16:           Vitamin Supplementation in Pregnancy. Scientific Advisory Committee.
Opinion Paper 16. 2009

Option list.
a)        False.
b)        True.
c)         5
d)        10
e)        15
f)         18
g)        20
h)        24
i)          contraindicated in the months before pregnancy
j)          contraindicated in the 1st. trimester
k)        contraindicated in the 2nd. trimester
l)          contraindicated in the 3rd. trimester
m)      contraindicated in all trimesters
n)        not contraindicated in pregnancy
o)        contraindicated in breastfeeding
p)        not contraindicated in breastfeeding
q)        an acute, severe illness like rheumatoid arthritis
r)         an acute, severe illness with encephalopathy and acute fatty liver
s)         an acute, severe illness with gastro-intestinal tract bleeding.


Scenario 1.
When are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in pregnancy?
Scenario 2.
When are ARAs contraindicated in pregnancy?
Scenario 3.
Can St. John’s Wort (SJW) be used in pregnancy?
Scenario 4.
Methyl dopa is an acceptable option for the treatment of gestational hypertension. True / False.
Scenario 5.
Spironolactone is contraindicated in pregnancy. True/False
Scenario 6.
Furosemide is an acceptable option in the management of gestational hypertension. True / False.
Scenario 7.
When are thiazide diuretics contraindicated in pregnancy?
Scenario 8.
Salbutamol is contraindicated for the management of premature labour. True / False.
Scenario 9.
Ergometrine is an integral part of active management of the 3rd. stage.  True / False.
Scenario 10.
When is aspirin contraindicated in pregnancy & the puerperium?
Scenario 11.
When are NSAID’s contraindicated in pregnancy and why?
Scenario 12.
Pethidine:       adverse neonatal effects are most likely if the drug is administered in the six hours before birth. True / False.
Scenario 13.
Pethidine:       what is the half-life in the mature neonate?
Scenario 14.
Pethidine:       is contraindicated in those taking MOAIs or who have taken them in the previous 2 months.
Scenario 15.
Pethidine:       is relatively contra-indicated when there is significant blood loss.
Scenario 16.
Pethidine:       has greater analgesic effect in labour than Diamorphine.
Scenario 17.
What is Reye’s syndrome?




Monday, 11 August 2014

Tutorial 11 August 2014

Website.
Contact us.



11 August 2014

20
EMQ. Labour ward 2.
67
Critically evaluate the uses of the levonorgestrel intra-uterine system, LNG-IUS.
68
A woman attends the antenatal clinic at 36 weeks. She had read an article in a woman’s magazine about the merits of umbilical cord blood banking and would like to have this done.
1. Justify the history you will take.                       4 marks
2. Justify the investigations you will arrange.         2 marks
3. Justify your management.                               14 marks
69
You have been asked to write a protocol for the diagnosis and management of umbilical cord prolapse.
1. Justify the steps you will take.                                        6  marks
2. Justify the key advice you will include in the protocol.   14 marks
70
In relation to coeliac disease and pregnancy.
1. What is coeliac disease and how common is it?                                         4 marks
2. What are the clinical features in the non-pregnant?                                     4 marks.
3. How is coeliac disease diagnosed?                                                            2 marks.
4. What are the implications of coeliac disease for the pregnant woman?        6 marks.
5. Evaluate the management options in relation to pregnancy.                         4 marks


EMQ Labour ward 2.

Abbreviations.
CTG.      cardio-tocograph.
FBS.       fetal scalp-blood sample.
FHR.       fetal heart rate.

Option List.
start protocol for severe hypertension
allow labour to progress and re-assess in 30 minutes
increase syntocinon infusion rate.
increase syntocinon infusion rate and encourage effective pushing.
give misoprostol.
stop syntocinon, give O2,perform left-lateral tilt and re-assess in 30 minutes
start intra-uterine pressure monitoring
start STAN monitoring
perform fetal blood sampling
arrange category 1 Caesarean section
arrange category 2 Caesarean section
arrange category 3 Caesarean section
arrange category 4 Caesarean section
perform ventouse delivery
perform forceps delivery
perform breech extraction
perform external cephalic version
perform internal podalic version
none of the above

EMQ 1.
A 30-year-old primigravida has labour induced at 39 weeks because of pre-eclampsia.
Her blood pressure had been moderately raised since 36 weeks and a 24-hour urine collection showed 4 gm. protein. (Do you know the cut-offs for mild/moderate/sever hypertension? Answer below.)
ARM was done when the cervix was 4 cm. dilated and an oxytocin infusion was started 2 hours later as the contractions were infrequent.
She reached the 2nd. stage 6 hours after the ARM. You are called to see her 30 minutes later as the CTG shows variable decelerations and loss of baseline variability.
The fetal head is not palpable abdominally and vaginal examination shows a cephalic presentation 1 cm. below the spines and the position DOA.
What will be your management?
EMQ2.
A 40-year-old grande-multip with BMI 35 goes into labour at 38 weeks. She decides to have an epidural as she has not had one before and would like the experience. An effective block has been sited. She reaches the second stage 4 hours after admission. The epidural is not topped up and active pushing starts 30 minutes later. After 1 hour a FHR deceleration to 60 b.p.m. with slow recovery and loss of variability is noted. On abdominal examination, the head is < 1/5 palpable. Vaginal examination shows the head to be just above the ischial spines with moderate caput and moulding. What will be your management?
EMQ3.
A 29-yr-old woman with IDDM is admitted at 36 weeks’ gestation with ketoacidosis and a blood sugar of 15 mmol/l. A CTG is done and the FHR is 180 b.p.m. with loss of variability and variable decelerations. What will be your management?
EMQ4.
A 30-year-old woman with a previous normal delivery is admitted in labour for a planned vaginal breech delivery. On admission the cervix is 6 cm. dilated and a flexed breech presents 2 cm. below the spines. Two hours later the fetal heart rate rises to 160 b.p.m. with loss of variability and variable decelerations. Fresh meconium is passed. What will be your management.
EMQ5.
A 35-year-old woman with a previous normal delivery is admitted in labour for a planned vaginal delivery. On admission the cervix is 6 cm. dilated and a cephalic presentation is confirmed with the presenting part 2 cm. below the spines. Two hours later the cervix is 9 cm. dilated and the presenting part is on the perineum. The fetal heart rate has risen to 150 b.p.m. with loss of variability and variable decelerations. Fresh meconium is passed. A FBS shows a pH of 7.3. What will be your management?
EMQ6.
A 35-year-old woman with a previous normal delivery is admitted in labour. On admission the cervix is 6 cm. dilated and a cephalic presentation is confirmed with the presenting part 2 cm. below the spines. Two hours later the cervix is fully dilated and the presenting part is on the perineum. The fetal heart rate has risen to 150 b.p.m. with loss of variability and variable decelerations. Fresh meconium is passed. A FBS shows a pH of 7.2. What will be your management?
EMQ 7.
A 20 year-old nulliparous woman is admitted in labour at 33+5 weeks’ gestation. She reaches the 2nd. stage after 12 hours with the head in an OA position and 2 cm. below the spines. She becomes exhausted after 2 hours of active pushing. The FHR shows variable decelerations + loss of variability. A FBS shows a pH of 7.22. What will be your management?
EMQ8.
A 20 year-old nulliparous woman is admitted in labour at 39+5 weeks’ gestation. An epidural is sited at her request when her cervix is 4 cm. dilated but a dural tap occurs. She complains of headache. What will be your management?


Tutorial 7 August 2014

Website.
Contact us.

There was no tutorial tonight as only one person came.
The topics we would have discussed are below.


19
EMQ. Education.
63
A nulliparous 25-year-old woman presents for pre-pregnancy counselling. She had bariatric surgery BS) six months ago and has lost 5 kilos since the operation.
She is keen to get on with pregnancy.
1. Justify the history you will take.                                                                                  4 marks
2. Justify the investigations you will arrange.                                                                4 marks
3. Discuss the advice you will give.                                                                                  4 marks
4. Outline the steps that can be taken pre-conception to reduce the risks of pregnancy after BS.                                  
                                                                                                                                                4 marks
5. Outline the key aspects of management of pregnancy and delivery after BS.     4 marks
64
A 32 year-old woman with learning difficulty attends the gynaecology clinic with her mother. The referral is because of severe dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. The mother is keen for her to have hysterectomy and is prepared to give her consent.
1. What factors will you take into consideration before offering treatment?            8 marks.
2. Outline the treatment options, not including hysterectomy, that you will discuss.  6 marks.
3.  If it is concluded that hysterectomy is the best option, justify the steps you will take to arrange this                                                                                                        6 marks.
65
A 35-year old woman has been referred by her GP to the gynaecology clinic where she has been previously investigated for pelvic pain. She has read an article in a woman’s magazine about pelvic congestion syndrome. She feels that this describes her problem accurately and wants to know what treatment can be offered.
1.            Detail the history you will take.                                                4 marks
2.            Justify the advice you will give.                                                2 marks
3.            Define pelvic congestion syndrome.                                         2 marks
4.            Outline how pelvic congestion syndrome is best diagnosed.       6 marks
5.            Outline the treatment options for pelvic congestion syndrome.   6 marks.
66
A 30-year-old woman para 1+1 presents at 34 weeks gestation with right loin pain, frequency of micturition, dysuria and pyrexia.
1. Justify the history you will take.                      6 marks.
2. Justify the investigations you will arrange.  6 marks.
3. Justify your management.                              12 marks.

Education.
I am not an expert in this topic and offer this as some help to working out answers if you get a question on teaching methods, which has happened. If you are an expert and can help to improve what follows, that will be much appreciated.
If you get a question in the exam, please try to remember as much as possible, particularly the option list and send it to me.
There is often a variety of different techniques that could be used. I would guess that the exam committee will take care to restrict the option list so that it is clear which is the best option.
Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to medical education
Pick one option from the option list.
Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.
Abbreviations.
EMQ:    extended, matching question.
PBL:       problem-based learning.
Scenario 1.
A woman is admitted with an eclamptic seizure. The acute episode is dealt with and she is put on an appropriate protocol. You wish to use the case to outline key aspects of PET and eclampsia to the two medical students who are on the labour ward with you. Which would be the most appropriate approach?
Scenario 2.
You have been asked to provide a summary of the key aspects of the recent Maternal Mortality Meeting to the annual GP refresher course. There are likely to be 100 attendees. Which would be the most appropriate approach?
Scenario 3.
You have been asked to teach a new trainee the use of the ventouse. Which would be the most appropriate approach?
Scenario 4.
You have been asked to teach a group of medical students about PPH. To your surprise you find that they have good basic knowledge. Which technique will you apply to get the most from the teaching session?
Scenario 5.
Your consultant has asked you to get the unit’s medical students to prepare some questions about breech delivery which they can ask of their peers when they next meet. Which technique will you use?
Scenario 6.
You have been asked to discuss 2ry. amenorrhoea with your unit’s medical students. You are uncertain about the amount of basic physiology and endocrinology they remember from basic science teaching. Which technique will you use?
Scenario 7
The RCOG has asked you to chair a Green-top Guideline development committee. You find that there is very little by way of research evidence to help with the process. The College has assembled a team of consultants with expertise and interest in the subject. Which technique would be best to reach consensus on the various elements of the GTG?
Scenario 8
Which of the listed teaching techniques is least likely to lead to deep learning?
Scenario 9
An interactive lecture with EMQs is the best method of teaching. True or false.
Scenario 10
Only 20% of what is taught in a lecture is retained. True or false.
Scenario 11.
The main role of the teacher is information provision. True or false.
Scenario 12.
The main role of the teacher is to be a role model.  True or false.

Option list.
  1. brainstorming.
  2. brainwashing
  3. cream cake circle.
  4. Delphi technique.
  5. demonstration & practice using clinical model.
  6. doughnut round.
  7. interactive lecture with EMQs.
  8. lecture.
  9. 1 minute preceptor method.
  10. teaching peers / junior colleagues
  11. schema activation.
  12. schema refinement.
  13. small group discussion.
  14. snowballing.
  15. snowboarding.
  16. true
  17. false








Monday, 4 August 2014

Tutorial 4 August 2014

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EMQ. AIS, MRKH and Swyer’s syndrome
59
You have been asked to write guidance for the unit in relation to labour and delivery in water.
1. Outline how you will go about the task.                             8 marks.
2. Discuss the key issues to be included in the guidance. 12 marks
60
A 20 year-old woman with a known history of drug abuse attends the hospital antenatal booking clinic in her first pregnancy.
a. outline the factors determining her level of risk  4 marks.
b. outline the risks to the mother                                 6 marks.
c. outline the risks to the fetus                                      4 marks.
d. outline the risks to the neonate & infant                4 marks.
e. outline the risk to others                                           2 marks.
61
Discuss the key issues relating to the second trimester fetal anomaly ultrasound scan.
62
With regard to female genital mutilation (FGM).
1.   what are the key aspects of the law in the UK relating to FGM.                    2 marks.
2.   what are the responsibilities of the doctor who suspects that a child may be subjected to FGM?
                                                                                                                                          2 marks.
3.   how is FGM graded?                                                                                               3 marks.
4.  outline the management of woman found at booking to have had FGM.  13 marks.


AIS, MRKH and Swyer’s syndrome

Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to disorders of sexual development.
Pick the option from the option list that best fits each scenario.
Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Abbreviations.
AIS:        androgen insensitivity syndrome.
AMH:    anti-Mullerian hormone.
CAH:      congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
CAI:       complete androgen insensitivity syndrome.
DSD:      disorder of sexual differentiation.
KS:         Kallmann’s syndrome.
LMB:     Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome.
MRKH:  Mayer-Rokitansky- Küster-Hauser syndrome.
PAI:       partial androgen insensitivity syndrome.
PW:       Prader-Willi syndrome.
SW:        Swyer’s syndrome.
TU:         Turner’s syndrome.
UPD:     uni-parental disomy.

Option list 1.
A.        has a uterus of normal size for her age.
B.        has a uterus that is hypoplastic for her age.
C.        has a vestigial uterus (anlagen).
D.        has no uterus.
E.         commonly has esthiomene
F.         I don’t know and I don’t care.
G.       the question makes no sense.
H.        none of the above.

Scenario 1.
a.      a girl with congenital adrenal hyperplasia at the start of puberty.

b.     a girl with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome at the start of puberty.

c.      a girl with a disorder of sexual differentiation at the start of puberty.

d.     a girl with Kallmann’s syndrome at the start of puberty.
 
e.     a girl with Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome at the start of puberty.

f.      a girl with Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome at the start of puberty.

g.      a girl with partial androgen insensitivity syndrome at the start of puberty.

h.     a girl with Prader-Willi syndrome at the start of puberty.

i.       a girl with Swyer’s syndrome at the start of puberty.

j.       a girl with Turner’s syndrome at the start of puberty.


Tutorial 31 July 2014

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There was no tutorial tonight.
One person came, but the second was much delayed and she had gone before he arrived.
Send me your answers and I'll send mine.


17
EMQ. Anti-D immunoglobulin.
55
Vitamin D and pregnancy.
Which conditions have been linked to low maternal vitamin D levels?           10 marks
Which women are at increased risk of having low vitamin D levels?               6 marks               
What is being done in the UK to prevent low vitamin D levels in pregnancy? 4 marks.
56
A 25 year-old woman books at 8 weeks. She has one child, aged 3 years. He has recently had chickenpox diagnosed. Her sister is 38 weeks pregnant.
1.  Justify your initial management.                                      8 marks.
2.  Justify your management for the rest of the pregnancy.   8 marks.
3.  Justify the advice you will give with regard to her sister. 4 marks.
57
With regard to epidural anaesthesia:
1.  Outline the main differences between it and spinal anaesthesia.   4 marks.
2.  Outline the main techniques and drugs used.                              6 marks.
2.  Evaluate the main contraindications.                                          4 marks.
3.  Discuss the main uses.                                                                              6 marks.
58
A 53-year-old woman is referred by her GP. She wishes to discuss HRT. She is recovering well from treatment for endometrial cancer.
1. Outline the history you will take.                      4 marks
2. Justify the investigations you will arrange.         2 marks
3. Critically evaluate your management.                14 marks


Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to Rhesus prophylaxis and anti-D.

Abbreviations.
Ig:           immunoglobulin.
FMF:      feto-maternal haemorrhage.
RAADP:                routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis.
RBC:       red blood cells.
RhAI:     Rhesus D alloimmunisation.
BSE:       bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
CJD:       Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.
               
There is no option list to force good technique!

Scenarios.
1.       What proportion of the Caucasian population in the UK has Rh –ve blood group?        
2.       What proportion of the Rhesus +ve Caucasian population is homozygous for RhD?    
3.       What is the chance of a Rh –ve woman with a Rh +ve partner having a Rh –ve child?
4.       When was routine postnatal anti-D prophylaxis introduced in the UK? 
5.       Where does anti-D for prophylactic use come from?
6.       How many deaths per 100,000 births were due to RhAI up to 1969.   
7.       How many deaths per 100,000 births were due to RhAI in 1990.
8.       Anti-D was in short supply in 1969. Which non-sensitised Rh –ve primigravidae with Rh +ve babies would not be given anti-D as a matter of policy?    
9.       List the possible reasons that a Rhesus –ve mother with a Rhesus +ve baby who does not receive anti-D might not become sensitised?                                                                                                                        
10.   What is the UK policy for the administration of anti-D after a term pregnancy?
11.   What is the alternative name of the Kleihauer test?
12.   What does the Kleihauer test do?
13.   How does the Kleihauer test work and what buzz words should you have in your head?
14.   When should a Kleihauer test be done after vaginal delivery?
15.   What blood specimen should be sent to the laboratory for a Kleihauer test?
16.   What steps should be taken to prevent sensitisation in the woman whose blood group is RhDu and whose baby is Rh +ve?
17.   The Kleihauer test is of value in helping to decide if antenatal vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain are due to placental abruption, with a +ve test confirming FMH and making abruption highly probable.  True/False
18.   When should anti-D be offered?
19.   When should a Kleihauer test be considered?                                                                               
20.   How often does the word “considered” feature in the GTG?
21.   A Rhesus –ve woman miscarries a Rh +ve fetus at 18 week’s gestation. What should be done about Rhesus prophylaxis?
22.   A Rhesus –ve woman miscarries a Rh +ve fetus at 20 week’s gestation. What should be done about Rhesus prophylaxis?
23.   Which potentially sensitising events are mentioned in the GTG?
24.   What factors are listed in the GTG as particularly likely to cause FMH > 4 ml
25.   A woman has recurrent bleeding from 20 weeks. What should be done about Rh prophylaxis?
26.   What are the key messages about giving RAADP?