Thursday, 13 August 2020

Tutorial 13 August 2020

 


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72

Role-play. Previous stillbirth.

73

Viva. Laboratory results.

74

EMQ. Drugs in O&G. 1

75

EMQ. Listeriosis and pregnancy.

76

SBA. Pertussis.

 

72. Role-play. Previous stillbirth.

Candidate's Instructions.

This is a roleplay station. You are an SpR in the booking clinic. You are about to see a woman who is at 10 weeks’ gestation in her second pregnancy. Her first baby was stillborn.

She has had all the routine booking, including investigations, dealt with by the midwife who has asked you to see her to advise about her first pregnancy and its implications for the management of this pregnancy.

Take an appropriate history, advise about the necessary investigations and how the history of stillbirth will influence the management of the pregnancy.

 

73. Structured discussion. Laboratory results.

Your consultant is on annual leave. Her secretary has asked you to look through the following results and decide what administrative action should be taken in relation to each.

1.     +ve MSSU at booking. No symptoms.

2.     GTT at 34 weeks. Peak level 11.5.

3.     FBC with ­ MCV at booking.

4.     Thrombocytopenia at booking. 50,000.

5.     Hydatidiform mole after evacuation of suspected miscarriage.

6.     Histology after ERPC for incomplete miscarriage: no trophoblastic tissue.

7.     Endometrial cancer: hysteroscopy: thickened endometrium. Histology: Anaplastic malignancy.

8.     Endometrial cancer: MR scan: reaching serosa and upper endocervical canal.

9.     Consultant does lap drainage of normal looking ovarian cyst. Malignant cells. Nulliparous. Wants children.

10.   HVS: trichomonas.

11.   Clue cells on smear. 12/52 pregnant.

12.   Antenatal discharge: endocervical swab: chlamydia

13.   Actinomyces on smear.

14.   Herpes in pregnancy

15.   Severe dyskaryosis on cervical smear at booking.

16.   Primary infertility: FSH & LH ­ at 25 on day 3 of cycle.

17.   Primary infertility. FSH 3, LH 12 on day 3 of cycle.

18.   Treated with cabergoline for ­ prolactin and pituitary adenoma. +ve beta HCG.

19.   3 cm. ovarian cyst. ­ Ca 125.

 

74. Drugs in O&G 1.

Lead-in.

The following scenarios relate to drugs & hypertension in pregnancy.

Pick one option from the option list.

Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Abbreviations.

ACE:             angiotensin-converting enzyme

ACEI:            angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

ARA:             angiotensin II receptor antagonist

HG:               hyperemesis gravidarum

IUGR:           intra-uterine growth retardation

LDA:             low-dose aspirin

MAOI:          monoamine oxidase inhibitor

Option list.

a)       False.

b)       True.

c)        5

d)       10

e)       15

f)         18

g)       20

h)       24

i)         contraindicated in the months before pregnancy

j)         contraindicated in the 1st. trimester

k)        contraindicated in the 2nd. trimester

l)         contraindicated in the 3rd. trimester

m)     contraindicated in all trimesters

n)       not contraindicated in pregnancy

o)       contraindicated in breastfeeding

p)       not contraindicated in breastfeeding

q)       an acute, severe illness like rheumatoid arthritis

r)        an acute, severe illness with encephalopathy and acute fatty liver

s)        an acute, severe illness with gastro-intestinal tract bleeding

t)     there is insufficient information to be able to provide advice

Scenario 1.

When are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in pregnancy?

Scenario 2.

When are ARAs contraindicated in pregnancy?

Scenario 3.

Can St. John’s Wort (SJW) be used in pregnancy?

Scenario 4.

Methyldopa is an acceptable option for the treatment of gestational hypertension.

Scenario 5.

Spironolactone is contraindicated in pregnancy.

Scenario 6.

Furosemide is an acceptable option in the management of gestational hypertension.

Scenario 7.

When and why are thiazide diuretics contraindicated in pregnancy?

Scenario 8.

Salbutamol is contraindicated for the management of premature labour.

Scenario 9.

Ergometrine is an integral part of active management of the 3rd. stage.

Scenario 10.

When is aspirin contraindicated in pregnancy & the puerperium?

Scenario 11.

When are NSAID’s contraindicated in pregnancy and why?

Scenario 12.

Pethidine: adverse neonatal effects are most likely if the drug is administered in the six hours before birth.

Scenario 13.

Pethidine: what is the half-life in the mature neonate?

Scenario 14.

Pethidine is contraindicated in those taking MOAIs or done so in the previous 2 months. 

Scenario 15.

Pethidine is relatively contra-indicated when there is significant blood loss.

Scenario 16.

Pethidine has greater analgesic effect in labour than Diamorphine.

Scenario 17.

What is Reye’s syndrome and which family of drugs is particularly linked?

Scenario 18.

What is “torsades de pointes” and when is it of importance in the management of HG?

 

75. EMQ. Listeriosis.

Abbreviations.

Lm:               Listeria monocytogenes.

TOC:             test of cure.

Scenario 1.           

Which organism is responsible for human listeriosis?

A

Listeria diogenys

B

Listeria frigidaire

C

Listeria hominis

D

Listeria monocytogenes

E

Listeria xenophylus

Scenario 2.           

Which, if any, of the following statements are true about Lm? This is not a true EMQ as there may be >1 correct answer.

Option list.

A

it is a small, Gram -ve rod

B

it is a Gram +ve coccus

C

it is flagellated

D

it has no cell wall

E

it is an obligate aerobe

F

it functions within host cells

G

it can easily be mistaken for commensal organisms

H

none of the above

Scenario 3.           

Which of the following are associated with an increased risk of contracting listeriosis? This is not a true EMQ as there may be >1 correct answer.

A

age > 60 years

B

age < 1 year

C

blond hair

D

pregnancy

E

strabismus

Scenario 4.           

Which of the following is true of the susceptibility of pregnant women to Lm? This is not a true EMQ as there may be >1 correct answer.

Option list.

A

they are not more susceptible

B

they are more susceptible x 2

C

they are more susceptible x 5

D

they are more susceptible x 10

E

they are more susceptible x 20

F

they are > 20 times more susceptible

G

none of the above.

Scenario 5.           

When does Lm most often occur? This is not a true EMQ as there may be >1 correct answer.

Option list.

A

1st. trimester

B

2nd. trimester

C

3rd trimester

D

1st. + 2nd. trimesters

E

2nd. + 3rd trimesters

F

all trimesters equally

G

puerperium

H

none of the above

Scenario 6.           

What is the incubation period for Lm?.

Option list.

A

7±3 days

B

7±5 days

C

10±3 days

D

10±5 days

E

14±3 days

F

14±5 days

G

none of the above.

Scenario 7.           

What is the significance of Granulomatosis Infantisepticum ?

Option list.

A

it is a fabrication by the author and of no significance

B

it is pathognomonic of Lm infection

C

it is the cause of vertical transmission of Lm

D

I refuse to answer Latin questions as they make me think of Boris Johnson

E

none of the above

Scenario 8.           

Which of the following are accurate about cervico-vaginal infection? This is not a true EMQ as there may be >1 correct answer.

Option list.

A

Lm is as often found in the cervix as in the bowel.

B

Lm is as often found in the vagina as in the bowel.

C

Lm is less often  found in the cervix than in the bowel.

D

Lm is less often  found in the vagina than in the bowel.

E

Lm is more often  found in the cervix than in the bowel.

F

Lm is more often  found in the cervix than in the bowel.

G

no one knows and no one cares

Scenario 9.           

A GP phones about a primigravida at 28 weeks’ gestation. She has possibly ingested food contaminated by Lm. She is asymptomatic and afebrile. What advice will you give?

Option list.

A

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 2 weeks

B

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 4 weeks

C

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 6 weeks

D

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 8 weeks

E

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

F

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

G

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

H

admit to hospital for investigation and intensive treatment if Lm infection found

I

none of the above

Scenario 10.        

A GP phones about a primigravida at 28 weeks’ gestation. She has possibly ingested food contaminated by Lm. She has mild symptoms but is afebrile. What advice will you give?

Option list.

A

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 2 weeks

B

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 4 weeks

C

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 6 weeks

D

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 8 weeks

E

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

F

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

G

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

H

admit to hospital for investigation and intensive treatment if Lm infection found

I

none of the above

Scenario 11.        

A GP phones about a primigravida at 28 weeks’ gestation. She has possibly ingested food contaminated by Lm. She is symptomatic and her temperature is 38.2oC. What advice will you give?

Option list.

A

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 2 weeks

B

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 4 weeks

C

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 6 weeks

D

reassure and advise her about avoiding exposure and to reattend if she develops signs or symptoms within 8 weeks

E

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

F

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

G

prescribe appropriate antibiotic(s) for 7 days with follow-up for TOC

H

admit to hospital for investigation and intensive treatment if Lm infection found

I

none of the above

Scenario 12.        

Which, if any, of the following would be appropriate for consideration as 1st. line treatment of Lm in pregnancy? This is not a true EMQ as there may be more than 1 correct answer.

Option list.

A

ampicillin

B

ampicillin + gentamycin

C

ampicillin + streptomycin

D

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

E

clarithromycin

F

erythromycin

G

erythromycin + metronidazole

H

trimethoprim

I

none of the above

 

74. Pertussis.

Some are not true SBAs as there may be more than 1 correct answer.

Question  1.   

Lead-in. Why is pertussis of current concern in obstetrics?

Option List

A

Research has linked pertussis in the 1st. trimester to ↑ risk of congenital heart disease

B

A mini-epidemic since 2011 has caused ↑ deaths of mothers & of babies < 3 months

C

A mini-epidemic since 2011 has caused ↑ deaths of babies < 3 months

D

The infecting organism has become increasingly drug-resistant

E

The infecting organism has become increasingly virulent

Question  2.   

Lead-in

Which organism causes whooping cough?

Option List

A

Bordella pertussis

B

Bacteroides pertussis

C

Rotavirus whoopoe

D

Respiratory syncytiovirus pertussis

E

None of the above

Question  3.   

Lead-in

Which, if any, of the following statements is true about the organism what causes whooping cough? This is not a true SBA.

Option List

A

the organism is aerobic

B

the organism is anaerobic

C

the organism is capsulated

D

the organism is flagellate

E

the organism is an obligate intra-cellular parasite

F

the organism is a Gram -ve diplococcus

G

the organism is a Gram +ve diplococcus

H

the organism requires special transport media

I

no one is going to ask me any of this stuff

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question  4.        

Lead-in

Which of the following statements is true?

Option List

A

Pertussis is no longer a significant threat to infants

B

Pertussis remains a significant threat to infants

C

The risk of death from pertussis is eliminated by timely antibiotic therapy

D

the risk of death from pertussis is eliminated by timely antiviral therapy

E

None of the above

Question  5.   

Lead-in

Which of the following statements is true?

Option List

A

Pertussis is not a notifiable disease

B

Pertussis is a notifiable disease

C

Pertussis is not notifiable, but should be reported to the local bacteriologist

D

Pertussis is not notifiable, but cases should be subject to audit

Question  6.   

Lead-in

What is the main mode of spread of the organism that causes pertussis?

Option List

A

contact with contaminated surfaces

B

contaminated food

C

contaminated water

D

respiratory droplets

E

none of the above

Question  7.        

Lead-in

What is the main reservoir of the organism that causes pertussis?

Option List

A

budgerigars

B

cats

C

dogs

D

humans

E

pigeons

F

pigs

G

none of the above

Question  8.   

Lead-in

What is the epidemiology of pertussis?

Option List

A

the condition is endemic

B

the condition is endemic with mini-epidemics every 3-5 years

C

the condition is endemic with mini-epidemics most years in the winter months

D

the condition is epidemic, with outbreaks at roughly three-year intervals

E

the condition is epidemic, with outbreaks at unpredictable intervals

Question  9.        

Lead-in

What is the incubation period for pertussis?

Option List

A

3-6     days

B

7-10   days

C

11-14 days

D

15-18 days

E

none of the above.

Question  10.     

Lead-in

What is the duration of infectivity of someone with pertussis?

Option List

A

2 days from exposure → 5 days after onset of paroxysms of coughing

B

3 days from exposure → 10 days after onset of paroxysms of coughing

C

4 days from exposure → 14 days after onset of paroxysms of coughing

D

6 days from exposure → 21 days after onset of paroxysms of coughing

E

none of the above

Question  11.     

Lead-in

What % of non-immune, close contacts of pertussis will develop the disease?

Option List

A

50%

B

60%

C

70%

D

80%

E

90%

Question  12.     

Lead-in

What practical issues are current for obstetrician in relation to pertussis?

Option List

A

The DOH advises that all pregnant women be immunised to ↓maternal death rates.

B

The DOH advises that all pregnant women be immunised to ↓ deaths in babies < 3 months.

C

The DOH advises that all babies be immunised at birth.

D

The DOH advised that “Boostrix- IPV” should replace “Repevax” from July 2014.

E

The DOH advises that immunisation of pregnant women be continued until 2019

Question  13.     

Lead-in

Which, if any, of the following statements is true in relation to average annual number of deaths due to pertussis in the years before routing child immunisation was introduced?

Option List

A

the number was 10,000

B

the number was    5,000

C

the number was    4,000

D

the number was    3,500

E

the number was <1,000

Question  14.     

Lead-in

Which, if any, of the following statements are true in relation to pertussis vaccine.

Option List

A

“Boostrix- IPV” is a vaccine for pertussis only

B

“Repevax” is a vaccine for pertussis only

C

“Boostrix- IPV” & “Repevax” are live, attenuated vaccines

D

“Boostrix- IPV” & “Repevax” act against diphtheria, tetanus and polio & pertussis

E

“Boostrix- IPV” & “Repevax” are acellular

Question  15.     

Lead-in

Which, if any, of the following statements are true in relation to the JCVI’s advice of the best time to administer pertussis vaccine in pregnancy?

Option List

A

20 - 24 weeks

B

25- 28 weeks

C

28 - 32 weeks

D

28 - 34 weeks

E

none of the above

Question  16.     

Lead-in

A woman has suspected pertussis in early pregnancy. Should she still be offered vaccination?

Option List

A

Yes

B

No

C

I don’t know

D

I don’t know

E

I hate this subject now

Question  17.     

Lead-in

A woman has proven pertussis in early pregnancy. Should she still be offered vaccination?

Option List

A

Yes

B

No

C

I don’t know

D

I don’t know

E

I hate this subject now

Question  18.     

Lead-in

A pregnant woman misses out on vaccination as part of the TIPP. Should vaccination still be offered in the puerperium?

Option List

A

Yes

B

No

C

I don’t know

D

I don’t know

E

I hate this subject now

 

 

 

 

Thursday, 6 August 2020

Tutorial 6 August 2020


Website 

67

Role-play. Farmer’s wife at booking.

68

Structured discussion. Enhanced recovery.

69

Structured discussion. Labour ward prioritisation.

70

EMQ. Family origin questionnaire

71

SBA. Kisspeptin.

 67. Role-play. Farmer’s wife at booking.

Candidate’s instructions.

You are an SpR5 and are running the antenatal clinic – your consultant is absent due to illness. You are about to see Mary Hapsburg. She has been booked by an experienced midwife who has done the relevant investigations and given all the routine booking advice about healthy life-style, Down’s syndrome screening, etc. All that is left is the advice about farming which she was not comfortable about advising on – she has asked you to see Mary to do this.

The GP letter reads: “Please see Mary Hapsburg who is 28 years old. This is her first pregnancy and the gestation will be 10 weeks, calculated from her LMP, by the time of the appointment. She is healthy and rubella-immune. She and her husband are farmers and  she wishes to know the implications for her and her pregnancy. I don’t know much about this and leave it to you to provide expert advice”.

Your task is to take a history and advise her in relation to pregnancy and farming.

 68. Structured discussion. Enhanced Recovery.

Candidate's instructions.

You are a newly-appointed consultant. The Clinical Director has asked you to develop a programme for enhanced recovery for inpatient gynaecological surgery. As a first step, she has asked you to deliver a talk to a unit meeting (all staff can attend) to outline the key features of enhanced recovery. She suspects most of the staff know little about the subject and hopes that your talk will encourage their enthusiastic participation. The examiner will ask you 9 questions pertinent to your talk.

 

69. Structured discussion. Labour ward prioritisation.

Candidate’s instructions.

You are the registrar on duty and responsible for the labour and gynae wards. You have just had the handover. Your task is to discuss the overall management of the wards with the examiner, to prioritise the patients and decide the allocation of staff to care for them.

This station was written for the first tutorial I ran for the OSCE exam when it was introduced more than 20 years ago. There are a number of phrases and concepts that reveal this distant origin, but I have retained them for nostalgic reasons. I ran the tutorial on a Sunday afternoon when I was on-call and using what was happening on the labour and gynae wards that day.

Labour Ward. Sunday 13.00 hours.

1

Mrs JH

Primigravida. T+8. In labour. 6 cms.

2

Mrs AH

Primigravida at T. In labour. 5 cms.

3

Mrs. BH

Para 2. 30 days post delivery. 2ry. PPH > 1,000 ml. Hb. 9.3.

4

Mrs SB

Primigravida. 32/52 gestation. Admitted 30 minutes ago. Abdominal pain + 200 ml. bleeding. Nephrostomy tube in situ - not draining since this morning. Low placenta on 20 week scan.

5

Mrs KW

Para 1. In labour. Cx. 5 cm. Ceph at spines.

6

Mrs KT

Para 0+1. 38 weeks. SROM. Ceph 2 cm. above spines. Clear liquor.

7

Mrs TB

Para 1. T+4. Clinically big baby. Cx fully dilated for 1 hour. Early decelerations.

8

Mrs RJ

Primigravida. Epidural. RIF pain. Cx fully dilated for 1 hour. Shallow late decelerations. OT position. Distressed ++. BP /105. ++ protein. Urine output 50 ml in past 4 hours.

9

Mrs KC

Transfer from ICU. 13 days after delivery of 32 week twins. Laparotomy on day 7 for pelvic pain and fever. Infected endometriotic cyst removed. IV antibiotics changed to oral.

 

Gynaecology ward.

8 major post-operative cases who have been seen on the morning ward round and are stable. The husband of a patient who had Wertheim's hysterectomy on the Friday was asking to see a doctor for a report on the operation.

 

1

Mrs JB

10 week incomplete miscarriage. Hb. 10.8. Moderate fresh bleeding.

2

Ms AS

19 years old. Nulliparous. Just admitted with left iliac fossa pain. Scan shows unilocular 5 cm. ovarian cyst.

Medical staff:

Consultant at home. Registrar - you.

Senior House Officer with 12 months experience.

Registrar in Anaesthesia.

Consultant Anaesthetist on call at home.

Midwifery staff:

Senior Sister.     Trained to take theatre cases. Able to site IV infusions and suture episiotomies and tears.

3 staff midwives. 1 trained to take theatre cases. Two able to site IV infusions.

1 Community midwife looking after Mrs. KW.

2 Pupil Midwives.

 

70. EMQ. Family origin questionnaire.

Question 1.             

What is the main purpose of the Family Origin Questionnaire? This is an EMQ with only one correct answer.

Option list.

A

to identify illegal immigrants

B

to identify those who are not entitled to free NHS care

C

to monitor the degree to which different ethnic groups use the NHS

D

to screen for sickle cell disease

E

to screen for α-thalassaemia

F

none of the above.

Question 2.             

Whose ancestry is asked about in the FOQ? This is not a true EMQ as there may be more than one correct answer.

Option list.

A

the pregnant woman

B

the woman’s partner/husband

C

the biological father of the pregnancy

D

the postman in case he delivered more than the mail

E

the queen

F

the woman’s mother

G

the woman’s father

H

the woman’s siblings

I

none of the above

Question 3.             

Which generations should be included? This is an EMQ with only one correct answer.

Option list.

A

the current generation

B

the current generation + the previous generation

C

the current generation + 2 previous generations

D

the current generation + 3 previous generations

E

the current generation + as many previous generations as possible

F

none of the above

Question 4.             

Who should complete the FOQ? This is an EMQ with only one correct answer.

Option list.

A

the woman

B

the woman’s husband / partner

C

the biological father of the pregnancy

D

the midwife

E

the obstetrician

F

an interpreter if the woman & partner are not fluent in English

G

none of the above

Question 5.             

What other responsibilities does the person completing the FOQ have? There is no option list so as not to make it too easy.

Question 6.             

Which tick boxes are highlighted in yellow on the FAQ. This is an EMQ with one correct answer.

Option list.

A

those that must be completed

B

those that suggest a possible ↑ risk of neonatal jaundice

C

those that suggest a possible ↑ risk of HepB

D

those that suggest a possible ↑ risk of SCD. SCT or thalassaemia

E

those showing areas with a ↑ risk of having SCD. SCT or thalassaemia

F

none of the above

Question 7.             

What is the significance of the red ‘hash’ mark  # that appears alongside some of the boxes. There is only one correct answer.

Option list.

A

the box that must be completed

B

just decoration to make the form more pleasing to the eye

C

denotes area with ↑ risk of bilharzia

D

denotes area with ↑ risk of falciparum malaria

E

denotes area with ↑ risk of α-thalassaemia

F

denotes area with ↑ risk of β-thalassaemia

G

none of the above

Question 8.             

A woman books at 10 weeks in her 1st. pregnancy. Her husband in Turkish and healthy. What screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia should be offered?

Option list.

A

screening depends on whether the area is high or low risk

B

screening depends on whether the FOQ shows high or low risk

C

the husband should first be screened

D

the woman should be screened using Hb and red cell indices

E

the woman should be screened using electrophoresis

F

none of the above

Question 9.             

A woman books at 10 weeks in her 1st. pregnancy. Her husband is English and healthy. What screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia should be offered?

Option list.

A

screening depends on whether the area is high or low risk

B

screening depends on whether the FOQ shows high or low risk

C

the husband should first be screened

D

the woman should be screened using Hb and red cell indices

E

the woman should be screened using electrophoresis

F

none of the above

 

71. SBA. Kisspeptin.

Lead in.

Pick the best answer from the list below about kisspeptin.

Option list.

A

is a pheromone released by the salivary glands during passionate embraces

B

is a digestive enzyme released by the salivary glands during passionate embraces

C

is a digestive enzyme found in human carnivores but not vegetarians

D

is thought necessary for trophoblastic invasion and low levels have been linked to miscarriage, recurrent miscarriage and ↑ risk of PET

E

is named after “Kiss me quick” chocolate

F

does not exist and this question is a very poor joke by someone who should know better