This is the first tutorial of the first session to prepare for the written exam in March 2016.
19th. November 2015.
1
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How to
prepare
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2
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SBA. RCOG sample obstetric
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3
|
SBA. RCOG sample gynaecological
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4
|
Basic
communication skills.
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5
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EMQ. MBRRACE.
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1. How to prepare:
what
to read
how
to read
getting
a study buddy
going
on a course
how
to alter the preparation if it previously did not lead to success
how
to get the most from the tutorial questions
choosing
an OSCE centre
2. RCOG sample obstetric SBAs.
Question 1
A woman
who is rhesus negative undergoes amniocentesis at 16 weeks.
What dose
of anti D immunoglobulin should she receive immediately after the procedure?
A. 250 IU
B. 500IU
C. 1000IU
D. 1500IU
E. 2000IU
B. 500IU
C. 1000IU
D. 1500IU
E. 2000IU
Question
2
You have just examined a
28-year-old primigravida in spontaneous labour. Examination findings are 0/5
palpable per abdomen, cervix is 7 cm dilated, cephalic presentation, -1
station, anterior fontanelle palpable with orbital ridges and nasal bridge felt
anteriorly.
What is the presenting
diameter of the fetus?
A. Mentovertical
B. Occipitofrontal
C. Submentobregmatic
D. Suboccipitobregmatic
E. Suboccipitofrontal
B. Occipitofrontal
C. Submentobregmatic
D. Suboccipitobregmatic
E. Suboccipitofrontal
Question
3
A 21-year-old woman, who is
known to have beta thalassemia major, attends the clinic for preconception
counselling.
What is the most relevant
initial pre-pregnancy investigation to predict maternal complications of
pregnancy?
A. Cardiac MRI
B. Chest X-Ray
C. ECG
D. Echocardiogram
E. Pulmonary function tests
B. Chest X-Ray
C. ECG
D. Echocardiogram
E. Pulmonary function tests
Question
4
A 34-year-old woman attends
for her booking in her third pregnancy. She had a caesarean section in her
first pregnancy 4 years ago and has had a successful vaginal birth after
caesarean section (VBAC) 2 years ago. She has a BMI OF 26.
What is the best predictor for
a successful VBAC?
A. BMI of less than 30
B. Less than 35 years old
C. Previous vaginal birth
D. Short inter-pregnancy interval
E. Spontaneous onset of labour
B. Less than 35 years old
C. Previous vaginal birth
D. Short inter-pregnancy interval
E. Spontaneous onset of labour
Question
5
You are asked to see a
21-year-old woman for preconceptual care. She was diagnosed with generalised
tonic-clonic epilepsy four years ago. This is poorly controlled. She is
currently on sodium valproate and levetiracetam.
What is the next step in her management?
A. Arrange MRI
B. Arrange an EEG
C. Commence aspirin 75 mg
D. Commence folic acid 5 mg
E. Review medication
B. Arrange an EEG
C. Commence aspirin 75 mg
D. Commence folic acid 5 mg
E. Review medication
Question
6
A 28-year-old woman attends
the mental health antenatal clinic at 12 weeks for a booking assessment. This
is her first baby.
Which condition gives her the
highest risk of puerperal psychosis?
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Bipolar affective disorder
C. Moderate depression
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
E. Recurrent anxiety
B. Bipolar affective disorder
C. Moderate depression
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
E. Recurrent anxiety
Question
7
A woman has had a recent
uncomplicated vaginal delivery but has developed a significant post-partum
pyrexia and tachycardia. She is thought to be allergic to penicillin. You
suspect puerperal sepsis and are keen to commence treatment prior to the
investigations coming back.
What is the antibiotic regime
of choice?
A. Cefuroxime
B. Clindamycin
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Erythromycin
E. Metronidazole
B. Clindamycin
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Erythromycin
E. Metronidazole
Question
8
In order to help plan the
capacity required for providing future maternity services you are asked to
design a study to establish the incidence of vaginal birth following previous
caesarean section. The study will require establishing the mode of delivery in
women who have either had only vaginal delivery or have had a caesarean section
in at least one previous pregnancy. You review the epidemiological study
methods that may be appropriate for this type of study.
Which type of research study
should you choose?
A. Case control
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. Ecological
E. Survey
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. Ecological
E. Survey
Question
9
A woman has an instrumental
delivery of a baby weighing 3950 g in her first pregnancy. A Grade 3C tear of
the anal sphincter is identified. An appropriate overlapping repair using 3/0
PDS is performed. Prior to discharge, she asks about the long-term risk of
faecal or flatal incontinence.
What percentage risk would you
advise?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%
Question
10
The respiratory system
undergoes immense changes in pregnancy in order to cope with demands of the
developing fetus and labour.
Which of the following
parameters does not change?
A. Arterial pH
B. Functional residual capacity
C. PaO2
D. Tidal volume
E. Vital capacity
B. Functional residual capacity
C. PaO2
D. Tidal volume
E. Vital capacity
3. RCOG gynae sample SBA questions.
Question 1
You have been asked to
obtain consent from a 32-year-old woman with cyclical pelvic pain for a
diagnostic laparoscopy under general anaesthesia.
What would you advise
her regarding the overall risk of a serious complication?
A. 1 in 50
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 250
D. 1 in 500
E. 1 in 1000
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 250
D. 1 in 500
E. 1 in 1000
Question 2
A 28-year-old woman
undergoes extensive laparoscopic surgery in the lithotomy position. She
presents after two days with unresolved right-sided foot drop and paraesthesia
over the calf and dorsum of the right foot.
Damage to which nerve
is the most likely cause?
A. Common peroneal
B. Femoral
C. Ilio-inguinal
D. Lateral cutaneous of the thigh
E. Obturator
B. Femoral
C. Ilio-inguinal
D. Lateral cutaneous of the thigh
E. Obturator
Question 3
A 19-year-old woman was
seen in the gynaecology clinic with a history of excessive growth of facial
hair, needing to wax every 2-3 weeks. Her menstrual periods last 7-8 days every
24-35 days. There is no change in her voice. Her BMI is 28 kg/m2. Examination
shows Ferriman-Gallwey grade 2-3 hirsutism over chest and abdomen. A pelvic
ultrasound showed no abnormality. Her day two hormone tests showed LH level
7.4IU/L, FSH level 5.2IU/L, serum testosterone level 2.3nmol/l, SHBG 24 nmol/L.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH) tumour
B. Androgen producing ovarian tumour
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Idiopathic hirsutism
E. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. Androgen producing ovarian tumour
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Idiopathic hirsutism
E. Polycystic ovary syndrome
Question 4
A 34-year-old woman
complains of heavy periods. She is trying to get pregnant so you prescribe
mefenamic acid for her, knowing it is very effective in reducing the blood
flow.
What type of drug is
this?
A. Cyclo-oxygenase
inhibitor
B. Derivative of 17α-ethinyltestosterone
C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist
D. Plasminogen activator inhibitor
E. Synthetic steroid hormone
B. Derivative of 17α-ethinyltestosterone
C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist
D. Plasminogen activator inhibitor
E. Synthetic steroid hormone
Question 5
A 45-year-old woman
with history of vulval itching and soreness for past two years attends the
gynaecology clinic. She is a smoker. She gives a history of using high potency
steroid ointment previously with no symptom relief. A biopsy in the clinic
reports vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) 3. You counsel her for excision
of the lesion.
What percentage of VIN
ultimately have unrecognised invasion detected on excision?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
E. 25%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
E. 25%
Question 6
A 55-year-old woman is
due to come in for total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral
salpingo-oophorectomy for a large mucinous ovarian cyst. She takes sequential
HRT for menopausal symptoms.
ou discuss with her the
risk of venous thromboembolism. How long prior to surgery should she stop HRT?
A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 5 weeks
E. 6 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 5 weeks
E. 6 weeks
Question 7
A 22 year-old-woman
presents to the early pregnancy unit with mild left iliac fossa pain.
Examination is normal. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. Her serum human
chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is 700 IU/L.
A transvaginal
ultrasound scan reports:
‘Bulky anteverted
uterus with a 2 mm cystic area centrally located within the endometrial cavity.
Both ovaries have normal ultrasonic appearances. There are no adnexal masses or
free fluid in the pelvis.’
What is the most
appropriate management?
A. Diagnostic
laparoscopy +/- proceed
B. Methotrexate therapy
C. Serum hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) measurement in 48 hours
D. Serum progesterone
E. Ultrasound scan in seven days
B. Methotrexate therapy
C. Serum hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) measurement in 48 hours
D. Serum progesterone
E. Ultrasound scan in seven days
Question 8
A 70-year-old had
noticed that her voice has deepened and she has increasing hair on her face
over the last three years. Serum testosterone is elevated at 7.2 nmol/L and
DHEAS (dehydroepiandrosterone) and urinary 17 ketosteroids are normal.
Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adrenal carcinoma
B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C. Ovarian hyperthecosis
D. Polycystic ovary syndrome
E. Sertoli Leydig cell tumour
B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C. Ovarian hyperthecosis
D. Polycystic ovary syndrome
E. Sertoli Leydig cell tumour
Question 9
A 45-year-old woman
underwent total abdominal hysterectomy for heavy menstrual bleeding. She has
received treatment for CIN3 and is on annual smears. Hysterectomy specimen has
reported no CIN.
What would be the
management plan?
A. Continue annual
smears
B. HPV testing
C. No follow up
D. Vault smear in 6 months
E. Vault smear in 12 months
B. HPV testing
C. No follow up
D. Vault smear in 6 months
E. Vault smear in 12 months
Question 10
A 30-year-old woman
presents to the infertility clinic with primary infertility and dysmenorrhoea
and is found on ultrasound to have a 6 cm endometrioma in the left ovary.
What is the most
appropriate initial management?
A. Gonadotrophin
releasing hormone agonist for six months
B. In-vitro fertilisation
C. Intrauterine insemination
D. Laparoscopic drainage of the endometrioma
E. Laparoscopic excision of the endometrioma
B. In-vitro fertilisation
C. Intrauterine insemination
D. Laparoscopic drainage of the endometrioma
E. Laparoscopic excision of the endometrioma
4. Basic communication skills.
1. Introduce yourself to the patient.
2. She is planning pregnancy. Her brother has
CF. Explain the genetics of CF and the implications for her.
5. MBRRACE.
Lead-in.
The
following scenarios relate to MBRRACE.
Pick one
option from the option list.
Each
option can be used once, more than once or not at all.
Abbreviations.
MMR. Maternal
Mortality Rate.
Option list.
Scenario 1.
What is the meaning of the acronym MBRRACE-UK”?
Scenario 2.
Which organisation does it replace?
Scenario 3.
How does it differ structurally from its
predecessor?
Scenario 4.
How will the format of its Reports differ from
those of its predecessor?
Scenario 5.
When was its first Report published?
Scenario 6.
What geographical innovation was included in
its first Report?
Scenario 7.
What alterations were made to the timings of
maternal death to be considered in its Reports?
Scenario 8.
What was the
latest MMR reported in its first Report?
Scenario 9.
How did this
compare with the final MMR reported by CMACE?
Scenario 10.
Which topics were
reviewed in detail in the first Report?
Scenario 11.
Which topics will
be reviewed in detail in the second Report in 2015?
Scenario 12.
Which topics will
be reviewed in detail in the third Report in 2016?
Scenario 13.
What was the
leading direct cause of death in the first Report?
Scenario 14.
What was the
leading indirect cause of death in the first Report?
Scenario 15.
What is the
definition of a maternal death?
Scenario 16.
What is the
definition of a direct maternal death?
Scenario 17.
What is the
definition on indirect maternal death?
Scenario 18.
What observation
was made in the first Report about deaths due to hypertensive diseases.
Scenario 19.
Which condition
was linked to 1 in 11 maternal deaths in the first Report?
Scenario 20.
What were the 5
top causes of direct maternal death in the years 2009 – 2011?
Scenario 21.
What key messages
were singled out in the first Report?
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