11 February 2016.
57
|
SBA. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
|
58
|
SBA. Coeliac disease in pregnancy
|
59
|
SBA. Fetal origins of adult disease
|
60
|
SBA. Influenza & pregnancy
|
61
|
SBA. Instrumental delivery
|
57. SBA. Androgen insensitivity syndrome.
Abbreviations.
AIS: androgen
insensitivity syndrome
Question 1.
Lead-in
What is
the estimated prevalence of AIS?
Option List
A.
|
2-5 per
100,000 boys at birth
|
B.
|
5-10 per 100,000 girls at birth
|
C.
|
2-5 per 100,000 genetic males at birth
|
D.
|
5-10 per 100,000 genetic females at birth
|
E.
|
none of the above.
|
Question 2.
Lead-in
Which of
the following sub-types of AIS do not exist?
Sub-types
1.
|
complete
AIS
|
2.
|
incomplete AIS
|
3.
|
mild AIS
|
4.
|
partial AIS
|
5.
|
total AIS
|
Option List
A.
|
1
|
B.
|
2
|
C.
|
3
|
D.
|
4
|
E.
|
5
|
F.
|
1 + 3
|
G.
|
2 + 3
|
H.
|
2 + 5
|
I.
|
3 + 5
|
J.
|
4 + 5
|
Question 3.
Lead-in
How common
is partial AIS?
Option List
A.
|
at least
as common as complete AIS
|
B.
|
at least as common as total AIS
|
C.
|
less common than mild AIS
|
D.
|
as common as incomplete AIS
|
E.
|
none of the above.
|
Question 4.
Lead-in
How common
is incomplete AIS?
Option List
A.
|
at least
as common as complete AIS
|
B.
|
at least as common as total AIS
|
C.
|
less common than mild AIS
|
D.
|
as common as partial AIS
|
E.
|
none of the above.
|
Question 5.
Lead-in
How common
is mild AIS?
Option List
A.
|
at least
as common as complete AIS
|
B.
|
at least
as common as total AIS
|
C.
|
less
common than complete AIS
|
D.
|
as
common as partial AIS
|
E.
|
none of
the above.
|
Question 6.
Lead-in
No more
prevalence!!
What is
the mode of inheritance of AIS?
Option List
A.
|
autosomal
dominant
|
B.
|
autosomal
recessive
|
C.
|
X-linked
dominant
|
D.
|
X-linked
recessive
|
E.
|
mitochondrial
|
Question 7.
Lead-in
What
proportion of AIS is due to new mutations?
Option List
A.
|
0%
|
B.
|
1 – 20%
|
C.
|
21 – 40%
|
D.
|
41-60%
|
E.
|
61-80%
|
Question 8.
Lead-in
Which gene
is involved in AIS?
Option List
A.
|
androgen
receptor gene
|
B.
|
aromatase receptor gene
|
C.
|
androstenedione gene
|
D.
|
oestrogen receptor gene
|
E.
|
none of the above
|
Question 9.
Lead-in
How many
mutations have been described of the gene which is involved in AIS?
Option List
A.
|
0-10
|
B.
|
11-100
|
C.
|
101-200
|
D.
|
201-300
|
E.
|
>300
|
Question 10.
Lead-in
Which is
the most common clinical presentation in AIS?
Option List
A.
|
ambiguous
genitalia
|
B.
|
precocious
puberty
|
C.
|
premature
menopause
|
D.
|
primary
amenorrhoea
|
E.
|
secondary
amenorrhoea
|
Question 11.
Lead-in
Which of
the following are more common in AIS?
Option List
A.
|
anlagen
|
B.
|
coarctation of the aorta
|
C.
|
“coast of Maine” pigmentation pattern
|
D.
|
renal tract anomalies
|
E.
|
none of the above.
|
Question 12.
Lead-in
A woman of
20 is found to have AIS. She has a pre-pubertal sister. What is the chance that
the sister also has AIS, assuming that the condition is not due to a new
mutation in the elder sister?
Option List
A.
|
1 in 1
|
B.
|
1 in 2
|
C.
|
1 in 4
|
D.
|
1 in 8
|
E.
|
1 in 16
|
Question 13.
Lead-in
What is
the risk of the gonads becoming malignant in AIS?
Option List
A.
|
10%
|
B.
|
20%
|
C.
|
30%
|
D.
|
> 30%
|
E.
|
accurate risk not known
|
58 SBA. Coeliac disease in pregnancy.
Abbreviations.
AGA: anti-gliadin antibodies
CD: coeliac disease.
EMA: anti-endomysial antibodies.
FGR: Fetal growth restriction.
IgA: immunoglobulin A IgG.
tTGA: anti-tissue
transglutaminase antibody.
Question 1.
Lead-in
What is
coeliac disease?
Option List
F.
|
allergy
to gluten
|
G.
|
malabsorption due to large bowel inflammation
|
H.
|
an auto-immune disorder triggered by gluten sensitivity
causing villous atrophy of the descending colon in individuals with a genetic
predisposition
|
I.
|
an auto-immune disorder triggered by gluten sensitivity
causing villous atrophy of the gastric mucosa in individuals with a genetic
predisposition
|
J.
|
an auto-immune disorder triggered by gluten sensitivity
causing villous atrophy of the small bowel in individuals with a genetic
predisposition
|
Question 2.
Lead-in
What is
the prevalence of coeliac disease in women of reproductive age?
Option List
A.
|
0.1%
|
B.
|
0.5%
|
C.
|
1-2 %
|
D.
|
2-5%
|
E.
|
5-10%
|
Question 3.
Lead-in
Which of the following groups have an increased risk of
CD?
Option List
F.
|
1st.
degree relatives of those with CD
|
G.
|
those with type 1 diabetes
|
H.
|
those
with iron deficiency anaemia
|
I.
|
those
with osteoporosis
|
J.
|
those
with unexplained infertility
|
Question 4.
Lead-in
Which of
the following are features of CD in the non-pregnant population?
Option List
A.
|
abdominal
bloating and pain
|
B.
|
amenorrhoea
|
C.
|
anaemia
|
D.
|
recurrent miscarriage
|
E.
|
unexplained infertility
|
Question 5.
Lead-in
How do
pregnant women with CD present most commonly?
Option List
A
|
anaemia
|
B
|
failure to gain weight in pregnancy
|
C
|
intra-uterine growth retardation
|
D
|
low BMI
|
E
|
no recognised abnormality
|
Question 6.
Lead-in
Which of
the following commonly occur in pregnant women with CD?
Option List
A
|
anaemia
|
B
|
failure to gain weight in pregnancy
|
C
|
intra-uterine growth retardation
|
D
|
low BMI
|
E
|
no recognised abnormality
|
Question 7.
How should the woman with suspected CD be investigated
initially?
Option List
A.
|
jejunal
biopsy
|
B.
|
IgA EMA
|
C.
|
IgA tTGA
|
D.
|
IgA EMA
+ IgA tTGA
|
E.
|
rectal
biopsy
|
Question 8.
Lead-in
Which, if
any, of the following statements are true in relation to the woman due to have
testing for suspected CD?
Option List
A.
|
continue
with a normal diet.
|
B.
|
continue with a normal diet that includes a minimum of
5 gm. gluten daily
|
C.
|
continue with a normal diet that includes a minimum of
10 gm. gluten daily
|
D.
|
follow a strict gluten-free diet for at least 1 month
|
E.
|
follow a strict gluten-free diet for at least 3 months
|
Question 9.
Lead-in
Which of
the following conditions should make consideration of testing for CD sensible?
Option List
A.
|
amenorrhoea
|
B.
|
Down’s syndrome
|
C.
|
epilepsy
|
D.
|
recurrent miscarriage
|
E.
|
Turner’s syndrome
|
F.
|
unexplained infertility
|
Question 10.
Lead-in
How is the
diagnosis of CD confirmed after +ve serological testing?
Option List
A.
|
colonoscopy
|
B.
|
enteroscopy
|
C.
|
gastroscopy
|
D.
|
rectal biopsy
|
E.
|
small
bowel biopsy
|
Question 11.
Lead-in
Which skin
condition is particularly associated with CD?
Option List
A.
|
atopic
eczema
|
B.
|
dermatitis herpetiformis
|
C.
|
dermatitis multiforme
|
D.
|
dermatographia
|
E.
|
psoriasis
|
Question 12.
Lead-in
Which of
the following are likely to be absorbed less well than normally in women with
CD?
Option List
A.
|
carbohydrate
|
B.
|
fat
|
C.
|
folic acid
|
D.
|
protein
|
E.
|
vitamins B12, D & K
|
Question 13.
Lead-in
What is
the appropriate treatment of CD?
Option List
A.
|
antibiotics:
long-term in low-dosage
|
B.
|
azathioprine
|
C.
|
cyclophosphamide
|
D.
|
rectal steroids
|
E.
|
none of the above
|
Question 14.
Lead-in
Which of
the following do not contain gluten?
Option List
A.
|
barley
|
B.
|
oats
|
C.
|
rapeseed oil
|
D.
|
rye
|
E.
|
wheat
|
59. SBA. Fetal origins of adult disease.
Abbreviations.
ADHD: attention-deficit,
hyperactivity disorder
Lead in.
These
questions relate to disease in adults resulting from events during fetal,
infant and child development.
Scenario 1.
What
eponymous title is given to the concept that adverse intra-uterine conditions
predispose to the development of disease in adulthood?
Option List
K.
|
the Barker hypothesis
|
L.
|
the Baker’s dozen
|
M.
|
the Broadbank theory
|
N.
|
PIPAD: Placental Insufficiency Programmes Adult Disease
|
O.
|
SIMCARD: Stop In-utero Malnutrition to Conquer Adult-resulting
Disease
|
Scenario 2.
Which
other term is used for the concept that adverse intra-uterine conditions
predispose to the development of disease in adulthood?
Option List
A.
|
FDAD: fetal determination of adult disease
|
B.
|
FIAD: fetal
influences on adult disease
|
C.
|
FIDAD: fetal and infancy determinants of adult disease
|
D.
|
FIGO: fetal
influences on genomic outcomes
|
E.
|
FP: fetal
programming
|
Scenario 3.
Which of
the following is thought to increase the risk of adult disease?
Option List
A.
|
low birthweight
|
B.
|
low birthweight followed by poor weight gain in infancy
and childhood
|
C.
|
low birthweight followed by poor weight gain in infancy
but above-average weight gain in childhood
|
D.
|
above-average birthweight
|
E.
|
above-average birthweight followed by poor weight gain
in infancy but above-average weight gain in childhood
|
F.
|
above-average birthweight followed by above-average
weight gain in infancy and childhood
|
Scenario 4.
Which
adult diseases are generally believed to be more likely in relation to adverse
influences on the fetus, infant and child.
Diseases.
A.
|
asthma
|
B.
|
chronic
bronchitis
|
C.
|
coronary
heart disease
|
D.
|
diabetes
type I
|
E.
|
diabetes
type 2
|
F.
|
hypertension
|
G.
|
Mendelson’s
syndrome
|
Option List
A.
|
A + B + C + D
|
B.
|
A + B + C + E
|
C.
|
A + B + C + E + F + G
|
D.
|
B + C + E + F + G
|
E.
|
C + E + F
|
Scenario 5.
What adult
condition has been linked to raised maternal c-reactive protein levels?
Option List
A.
|
asthma
|
B.
|
ADHD
|
C.
|
autism
|
D.
|
inflammatory bowel disease
|
E.
|
schizophrenia
|
60. SBA. Influenza & pregnancy.
Question 1.
Lead-in
What did
MBRRACE say about flu & pregnancy in its first report in 2014?
Option List
Pick the
best option from the following list.
P.
|
1 in 11
women died from flu
|
Q.
|
1 in 11 women died from flu and flu vaccination could
have prevented ½ of the deaths
|
R.
|
1 in 21 women died from flu
|
S.
|
1 in 21 women died from flu and flu vaccination could
have prevented ½ of the deaths
|
T.
|
1 in 51 women died from flu
|
U.
|
1 in 51 women died from flu and flu vaccination could
have prevented ½ of the deaths
|
Question 2.
Lead-in
How many
types of flu virus are recognised?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
F.
|
3
|
G.
|
5
|
H.
|
10
|
I.
|
15
|
J.
|
>100
|
Question 3.
Lead-in
Why can’t
we have a universal flu vaccine?
Pick the statements
from the following list that are true.
List of statements.
A.
|
The main
surface antigens are haemagglutinin and neuraminidase
|
B.
|
The main surface antigens are haemolysin and
neuroxidase
|
C.
|
The main surface antigens frequently
|
D.
|
The main core antigens change frequently, rendering existing
vaccines impotent
|
E.
|
The big drug companies avoid making a universal vaccine
for financial reasons.
|
Option List
1.
|
A + C + D + E
|
2.
|
A + C
|
3.
|
A + D + E
|
4.
|
B + C
|
5.
|
B + D + E
|
Question 4.
Lead-in
When is
flu’ most often a problem in the UK?
Pick the best
option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
Spring
|
B.
|
Summer
|
C.
|
Autumn
|
D.
|
Winter
|
E.
|
None of the above.
|
Question 5.
Lead-in
How is flu
spread?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
via
aerosol or droplets from respiratory tract of an infected person
|
B.
|
via aerosol or droplets from respiratory tract or
direct contact with respiratory secretions of an infected person
|
C.
|
from getting drenched in cold winter showers
|
D.
|
from thinking lascivious thoughts
|
E.
|
from toilet seats
|
Question 6.
Lead-in
What is
the incubation period for flu?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
1 – 3
days
|
B.
|
1 – 7 days
|
C.
|
5 – 10 days
|
D.
|
up to 2 weeks
|
E.
|
up to 3 weeks
|
Question 7.
Lead-in
Who
decides which viruses will be used in the vaccine for seasonal flu?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
|
DOH
|
|
JCVI
|
|
the Prime Minister
|
|
the vaccine manufacturers
|
|
WHO
|
Question 8.
Lead-in
How long
has flu vaccination been recommended in the UK?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
since
the 1950s
|
B.
|
since the 1960s
|
C.
|
since the 1970s
|
D.
|
since the 1980s
|
E.
|
since the 1990s
|
Question 9.
Lead-in
What is
the recommendation about when the vaccine should be given?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
May -
July
|
B.
|
June - August
|
C.
|
July - September
|
D.
|
August - October
|
E.
|
September - November
|
Question 10.
Lead-in
What
advice is given about vaccination in pregnancy?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
flu
vaccine is potentially teratogenic and should be avoided before 16 weeks
|
B.
|
the vaccine contains an attenuated virus with no
evidence of risk in pregnancy
|
C.
|
the vaccine recommended for pregnancy has no live viral
material and all pregnant women are encouraged to have the seasonal vaccine
|
D.
|
flu vaccine contains an attenuated virus with minimal
risk, but the anti-viral drug Tamiflu is given with the vaccine to eliminate
any risk of harm
|
Question 11.
Lead-in
What is
the H1N1 virus?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
The
avian virus which causes outbreaks of “bird flu”
|
B.
|
The virus associated with “swine” flu, which caused a
pandemic in 2009
|
C.
|
The virus associate with MERS, currently causing deaths
particularly in Saudi Arabia
|
D.
|
The virus associated with simian flu
|
E.
|
The virus associated with the pandemic of 1915.
|
Question 12.
Lead-in
What
advice should be given to pregnant women about protection against the H1N1
virus?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
K.
|
to have
vaccination against H1N1 in addition to the seasonal vaccine
|
L.
|
to have vaccination against H1N1 in preference to the
seasonal vaccine
|
M.
|
to await evidence of epidemic H1N1 flu and then have
vaccination against H1N1
|
N.
|
to have the seasonal vaccine as it gives good
protection against H1N1
|
O.
|
not to have any flu vaccination, but to take antiviral
drugs if symptoms of flu occur
|
Question 13.
Lead-in
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Which of the following conditions have been linked to flu in
pregnancy?
Conditions.
A.
|
risk of flu complications for the mother
|
B.
|
risk of low birthweight
|
C.
|
risk of maternal death
|
D.
|
risk of perinatal death
|
E.
|
risk of
prematurity
|
Option List
1
|
A + C+ D
+ E
|
2
|
A + B + C+ D
|
3
|
A + C + D
|
4
|
A + C+ D + E
|
5
|
A + B + C+ D + E
|
Question 14.
Lead-in
What is
the estimated uptake of flu vaccination by pregnant women in the UK?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
G.
|
20-30%
|
H.
|
30-40%
|
I.
|
40-50%
|
J.
|
50-60%
|
K.
|
> 60%
|
Question 15.
Lead-in
How many
maternal deaths were reported by MBRRACE for the years 2012 - 2013?
Pick the
best option from the following list.
Option List
A.
|
0
|
B.
|
5
|
C.
|
10
|
D.
|
15
|
E.
|
20
|
Question 16.
Lead-in
With
regard to the probable explanation for the numbers of maternal deaths from ‘flu
in 2012 and 2013,
which, if any, of the following
statements is true?
Option List
A.
|
the
numbers reflected increased prevalence of ‘flu
|
B.
|
the numbers reflected reduced prevalence of ‘flu
|
C.
|
the numbers reflected improved uptake of ‘flu vaccine
in pregnancy
|
D.
|
the numbers reflected the introduction of Tamiflu for
pregnant women with ‘flu
|
E.
|
none of the above
|
61. SBA. Instrumental delivery
Operative vaginal delivery.
Based on work
done by Aqeela Ayaz.
Abbreviations.
CPD: cephalo-pelvic disproportion
Cs: Caesarean section.
MCID: mid-cavity
instrumental delivery
OVD: operative vaginal delivery
SS: sagittal suture
Question 1.
Lead-in. Which of the following are categorised as instrumental delivery?
V.
|
forceps
delivery
|
W.
|
vacuum delivery
|
X.
|
manual rotation
|
Y.
|
delivery with the Odent device
|
Z.
|
delivery with Credé’s manoeuvre
|
Option List
1.
|
A + B
|
2.
|
A + B +
D
|
3.
|
A + B +
C + D
|
4.
|
A + B +
D + E
|
5.
|
A + B +
C + D + E
|
Question 2.
Lead-in. The following are included in the recommended classification of
instrumental delivery in GTG26 with which exception?
Option List
K.
|
outlet
|
L.
|
low
|
M.
|
mid with sagittal suture ≤ 450 from the OA
position
|
N.
|
mid with sagittal suture > 450 from the
OA position
|
O.
|
high
|
Question 3.
Lead-in
What is
the incidence of OVD in the UK?
Option List
F.
|
≤ 5%
|
G.
|
>5 % but <10%
|
H.
|
≥10 % but <15%
|
I.
|
≥15 % but <20%
|
J.
|
≥20%
|
Question 4.
Lead-in. What has been the trend in the incidence of OVD in the UK in recent
years?
Option List
L.
|
the
incidence has not changed significantly
|
M.
|
the incidence has increased by 25%
|
N.
|
the incidence has increased by 50%
|
O.
|
the incidence has decreased by 25%
|
P.
|
the incidence has decreased by 50%
|
Question 5.
Lead-in. Which, if any, of the following
features would be grounds for considering OVD?
Option List
F.
|
suspected
fetal compromise
|
G.
|
meconium
staining of the liquor
|
H.
|
maternal
pyrexia
|
I.
|
maternal
myotonic dystrophy
|
J.
|
paternal
myotonic dystrophy
|
K.
|
nullipara
who has been “pushing” for 2 hours without evidence of continuing progress
|
L.
|
multipara
who has been “pushing” for 2 hours without evidence of continuing progress
|
Question 6.
Lead-in. In relation to consent for OVD with the woman remaining in the delivery
room, which, if any of the following statements are true.
Option List
A.
|
It can
safely be assumed that all women capable of giving consent will have heard of
OVD and no information on the subject needs to be given during antenatal
care.
|
B.
|
It cannot safely be assumed that all women capable of
giving consent will have heard of OVD.
|
C.
|
All
women should be informed during antenatal care about the possibility of OVD
being required.
|
D.
|
All women should be given enough information orally and
in written form during antenatal care to ensure that they can give informed
consent for OVD if required.
|
E.
|
All women should be given enough information orally and
in written form during antenatal care to ensure that they can give informed
consent for OVD and be asked to sign a consent form for OVD to ensure that
there is valid consent if OVD is required.
|
Question 7.
Lead-in. In relation to consent for OVD with the woman transferred to theatre,
which, if any of the following statements are true.
Option List
A.
|
It can
safely be assumed that all women capable of giving consent will have heard of
OVD and no information on the subject needs to be given during antenatal
care.
|
B.
|
It cannot safely be assumed that all women capable of
giving consent will have heard of OVD.
|
C.
|
Verbal
consent suffices.
|
D.
|
Written consent should be obtained.
|
E.
|
Written consent should be obtained before attempting
OVD for both OVD and Caesarean section in case OVD fails.
|
Question 8.
Lead-in. Which, if any, of the following measures can reduce the need for OVD?
A.
|
continuous
support in labour, particularly by a supporter who is not a member of the
labour ward team
|
B.
|
consumption of raspberry tea in labour
|
C.
|
use of erect or lateral position in labour
|
D.
|
delaying pushing in primiparae
|
E.
|
use of a personalised partogram taking account of
height, BMI, ethnicity
|
Option List
1.
|
A + B
|
2.
|
A + B +
D
|
3.
|
A + C +
D
|
4.
|
A + C +
D + E
|
5.
|
A + B +
C + D + E
|
Question 9.
Lead-in. Which, if any, of the following are not contra-indications to the use of
the vacuum extractor?
Option List
A.
|
blood-borne viral infection of mother
|
B.
|
gestational age less than 34 weeks
|
C.
|
asynclitism
|
D.
|
mento-anterior face presentation
|
E.
|
mento-posterior face presentation
|
F.
|
breech presentation
|
Question 10.
Lead-in. What are the pre-requisites for OVD?
There is
no option list – just jot down as many as you can think of.
Question 11.
Lead-in. Which, if any, of the following statements are true when vacuum
extraction (VE) is compared with forceps delivery?
Option List
A.
|
VE has a
higher risk of failed delivery
|
B.
|
VE has
an increased risk of cephalo-haematoma
|
C.
|
VE has
an increased risk of risk of maternal retinal haemorrhage
|
D.
|
VE has
an increased risk of neonatal retinal haemorrhage
|
E.
|
VE has
an increased risk of maternal worry about the baby
|
F.
|
VE has
an increased risk of perineal trauma
|
G.
|
VE has
an increased risk of vaginal trauma
|
H.
|
VE has an
increased risk of Caesarean section
|
I.
|
VE has a
decreased risk of low Apgar score at 5 minutes
|
J.
|
VE has a
decreased risk of the baby needing phototherapy
|
Question 12.
Lead-in. How do forceps and the different types of vacuum extractor rank in the
likelihood of achieving vaginal delivery?
Option List
F.
|
forceps,
hand-held vacuum extractor, metal cup vacuum extractor, soft cup vacuum
extractor
|
G.
|
forceps, hand-held vacuum extractor, soft cup vacuum
extractor, metal cup vacuum extractor
|
H.
|
forceps, metal cup vacuum extractor, hand-held vacuum
extractor, soft cup vacuum extractor
|
I.
|
forceps, metal
cup vacuum extractor, soft cup vacuum
extractor hand-held vacuum extractor
|
J.
|
forceps, soft cup vacuum extractor, metal cup vacuum
extractor, hand-held vacuum extractor
|
Question 13.
Lead-in. What is the role of episiotomy in OVD? Which, if any, of the following
statements are true?
Option List
A.
|
episiotomy
should be done in all primiparous women and all multiparous women who have
had episiotomy before
|
B.
|
episiotomy should not be done unless 3rd. of
4th. degree tears are anticipated
|
C.
|
a policy of liberal use dependent on the operator’s
judgement is advocated in GTG26
|
D.
|
a policy of restrictive use dependent on the operator’s
judgement is advocated in GTG26
|
E.
|
GTG26 does not advise
|
Question 14.
Lead-in. When should attempted OVD be abandoned?
Option List
A.
|
after 3
pulls
|
B.
|
when there is no progressive descent
|
C.
|
when, using moderate traction, there is no progressive descent or delivery
is not imminent after 3 pulls
|
D.
|
when there is no progressive descent or delivery is not
imminent after 3 pulls
|
E.
|
when the operator needs a rest
|
Question 15.
Lead-in
When
should a clinical incident form be submitted after OVD?
Option List
A.
|
all OVDs
|
B.
|
all OVDs that fail to deliver the baby
|
C.
|
all OVDs with an adverse outcome
|
D.
|
all OVDs with an adverse outcome excluding failure to
deliver the baby
|
E.
|
all OVDs with injury to the baby or low 5-minute Apgar
scores
|
Question 16.
Lead-in.
What is
the main reason for medical litigation in relation to OVD
Option List
A.
|
sneezing
during traction
|
B.
|
not abandoning the procedure at the appropriate time
|
C.
|
pulling too hard, too long or too many times
|
D.
|
using more than one instrument
|
E.
|
failure to push the head up when C section is needed to
deliver the baby
|
Question 17.
Lead-in
What
advice is given in GTG26 in relations to sequential use of instruments for OVD.
Option List
A.
|
sequential
use should be avoided if possible
|
B.
|
sequential use increased the risk of trauma to the baby
|
C.
|
sequential use increases the risk of the neonate
needing mechanical ventilation
|
D.
|
sequential use may particularly indicated with outlet
deliveries
|
E.
|
all of the above
|
F.
|
some of the above, but I don’t know which.
|
Question18.
Lead-in. With regard to prophylactic antibiotics for OVD, which, if
any, of the following statements is true?
Option List
A.
|
a broad
spectrum antibiotic + metronidazole should be prescribed and continued for 5
days
|
B.
|
erythromycin + metronidazole or clindamycin should be
prescribed and continued for 5 days
|
C.
|
a broad spectrum antibiotic + metronidazole should be
prescribed initially and the drugs reviewed with the results of rectal and
vaginal swabs taken at delivery. The final drug regime should be continued
for 5 days
|
D.
|
prophylactic antibiotics should be decided with advice
from the bacteriologist to reflect local trends in infecting organism and
antibiotic sensitivity for genital and urinary tract infections.
|
E.
|
prophylactic antibiotics are not required.
|
Question 19.
Lead-in. What prophylaxis should be provided after OVD to reduce the risk of DVT
& VTE
Option List
A.
|
early
mobilisation and good hydration unless the woman has thrombophilia
|
B.
|
early mobilisation, good hydration, graded compression
stockings + warfarin
|
C.
|
early mobilisation, good hydration, graded compression
stockings + LMWH
|
D.
|
early mobilisation, good hydration, graded compression
stockings + warfarin
|
E.
|
none of the above
|
Question 20.
Lead-in. What pain relief should be prescribed after OVD?
Option List
A.
|
aspirin
|
B.
|
aspirin + codeine
|
C.
|
aspirin + codeine + paracetamol
|
D.
|
paracetamol and diclofenac
|
E.
|
paracetamol and ibuprofen
|
Question 21.
Lead-in. Which, if any, of the following would represent minimum bladder care
after OVD in women not having regional anaesthetic blocks?
Option List
A.
|
documentation
of the timing and volume of the first void
|
B.
|
24 hour input / output chart
|
C.
|
self-reporting of voiding difficulty
|
D.
|
physiotherapy-directed strategies to reduce risk of UI
|
E.
|
bladder training
|
Question 22.
Lead-in. Which, if any, of the following would represent minimum bladder care
after OVD in women who have had regional anaesthetic blocks topped up for trial
of OVD?
Option List
A.
|
indwelling
catheter for ≥ 12 hours
|
B.
|
input / output charting to ensure good voiding volumes
|
C.
|
self-reporting of voiding difficulty
|
D.
|
physiotherapy-directed strategies to reduce risk of UI
|
E.
|
bladder training
|
Question 23.
Lead-in. How effective is physiotherapist-provided intervention in reducing UI
after OVD?
Option List
|
it reduces
UI from about 50% to about 40%
|
|
it reduces UI from about 50% to about 30%
|
|
it reduces UI from about 40% to about 30%
|
|
it reduces
UI from about 40% to about 20%
|
|
it doesn’t work at all – it is just a measure to keep
women happy that something is being done
|
Question 24.
Lead-in. After OVD, the pre-discharge
review is best done by whom?
Option List
A.
|
a
midwife with de-briefing skills
|
B.
|
the senior midwife on the postnatal ward
|
C.
|
the doctor who performed the delivery
|
D.
|
the consultant under whose care the woman booked
|
E.
|
the SpR on-call for the postnatal wards
|
Question 25.
Lead-in. GTG26 mentions that OVD can be linked to women developing a PTST
syndrome with severe fear of childbirth. What is this called?
Option List
A.
|
androphobia
|
B.
|
iatrophobia
|
C.
|
parturophobia
|
D.
|
spermatophobia
|
E.
|
tocophobia
|
Question 26.
Lead-in. What advice does GTG give about strategies to reduce the risk of
tocophobia.
Option List
A.
|
midwife
de-briefing is effective but to only a small extent
|
B.
|
operator de-briefing is more effective than midwife
de-briefing
|
C.
|
combined midwife & operatory de-briefing is the
most effective intervention
|
D.
|
fortnightly visits to the same hospital antenatal team
are of proven value
|
E.
|
there are no interventions of proven value
|
Question 27.
Lead-in. What proportion of women at 3 years after OVD indicate that they plan
not to have further children?
Option List
P.
|
5%
|
Q.
|
10%
|
R.
|
25%
|
S.
|
50%
|
T.
|
100%
|
Question 28.
Lead-in. What
advice should women be given about future deliveries after OVD?
Option List
A.
|
aim for
normal delivery
|
B.
|
best with planned Caesarean section
|
C.
|
anticipate likely need for OVD
|
D.
|
best not to get pregnant
|
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