Thursday, 8 December 2016

Tutorial 8th. December 2016

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32
EMQ. Surrogacy
33
EMQ. Hepatitis B
34
EMQ. Confidentiality & consent
35
SBA. Coeliac disease & pregnancy
36
EMQ. Anti-D

32.         Surrogacy.
Abbreviations.
ART:           assisted reproductive technology
CF:              commissioning father
CM:            commissioning mother
CPs:            commissioning parents
PO:             parental order
SM:             surrogate mother
SSAEW:      Surrogacy Supervisory Authority England and Wales.
Option List.
a)      CM
b)      CF
c)       CPs
d)      SM
e)      Chairman of the HFEA
f)        Senior judge at the Children and Family Court
g)       traditional surrogacy
h)      gestational surrogacy
i)        HFEA
j)        SSAEW
k)       RCOG Surrogacy Sub-Committee
l)        false
m)    true
n)      none of the above

Scenario 1
List the different types of surrogacy.
Scenario 2.
“Gestational” surrogacy has better “take-home-baby” rates than “traditional” surrogacy. True/False
Scenario 3.
There are approximately 1,000 surrogate pregnancies per annum in the UK. True/False
Scenario 4.
Which national body regulates surrogacy in England?
Scenario 5.
Privately-arranged surrogate pregnancies are illegal and those involved are liable to up to 2 years in prison. True/False
Scenario 6.
List the risks of surrogacy.
Scenario 7.
Obstetricians are legally obliged to take the CPs’ wishes into consideration in managing pregnancy complications or problems. True / False
Scenario 8.
The psychological outcomes of surrogacy are fully understood. True/False.
Scenario 9.
The psychological outcomes of surrogacy are more severe after traditional surrogacy. True/False
Scenario 10.
Who has the right to arrange TOP if the fetus is found to have a major congenital abnormality?
Scenario 11.
A SM decides at 10 weeks that she does not wish to be pregnant and arranges to have a TOP. The CPs. hear about this and object strongly. To whom should they apply to have the TOP blocked?
Scenario 12.
A woman has hysterectomy and BSO to deal with extensive endometriosis at the age of 30. She marries two years later and her sister offers to act as surrogate. She undergoes IVF and 4 embryos are created. One is transferred and a successful pregnancy ensues. The baby is adopted by the woman and her husband. The 3 remaining embryos were frozen. Four years later the woman falls out with her sister, but finds another surrogate and wishes to proceed with another pregnancy. The sister says she does not want her eggs to be used and that the frozen embryos should not be transferred. Does the sister have the legal right to block the use of the embryos? Yes / No.
Scenario 13.
A girl born from donor sperm reaches the age of 16 and wishes to know the identity of her genetic father. Does she have the right to this information?  Yes / No.
Scenario 14.
A girl born from donor sperm reaches the age of 18 and wins a place at Oxford University to read medicine. Does she have the legal right to get the donor to contribute to her fees? Yes / No.
Scenario 15.
A PO is active from the moment it is completed and signed by the relevant parties.  True/False
Scenario 16.
A SM can change her mind at any time and keep the child, even if the egg was not hers.  True/False
Scenario 17.
The CPs can change their mind, leaving the SM as the legal mother.  True/False
Scenario 18.
A SM’s husband is the legal father until adoption is completed or a PO comes into force. True/False
Scenario 19.
A lesbian couple in a stable, co-habiting relationship can be CPs and become the legal parents of the child of a SM. True/False
Scenario 20.
CPs are likely to get faster legal status as the legal parents through application for a PO rather than applying for adoption. True/False

33.         Topic. Hepatitis B and pregnancy.
Lead-in.
These scenarios relate to hepatitis and pregnancy.
Abbreviations.
CNP:           Handbook of Obstetric Medicine. 5th. Edition. Catherine Nelson-Piercy. CRC Press. 2015.  HAV:            hepatitis A virus
HBcAg:       hepatitis B core antigen
HBeAg:       hepatitis B e antigen
HBsAg:       hepatitis B surface antigen
HBcAb:       antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
HBeAb:      antibody to hepatitis B e antigen
HBsAb:       antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen
HBIG:         hepatitis B immunoglobulin
HBV:           hepatitis B virus
HBcAg:       hepatitis B core antigen
HBeAg:       hepatitis B e antigen
HBsAg:       hepatitis B surface antigen
HBcAb:       antibody to hepatitis B core antigen
HBeAb:      antibody to hepatitis B e antigen
HBsAb:       antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen
HBIG:         hepatitis B immunoglobulin
HCV:           hepatitis C virus
HEV:           hepatitis E virus
HSV:           herpes simplex virus
VT:              vertical transmission
Option list.
A.       
acyclovir 
B.       
divorce
C.       
HBcAg +ve
D.       
HBeAg +ve
E.        
HbsAg +ve
F.        
HBsAg +ve; HBsAb –ve;  HBcAb –ve; HBeAg +ve
G.       
HBsAg +ve; HBsAb –ve on two tests six months apart
H.       
HBsAg -ve; HBsAb -ve on two tests six months apart
I.         
HBsAg -ve; HBsAb +ve; HBcAb –ve
J.         
HBsAg -ve; HBsAb +ve; HBcAb +ve
K.        
HBsAg -ve; HBsAb +ve
L.        
HBsAg +ve; HBcAg +ve
M.     
HBV vaccine
N.       
HBIG
O.      
HBV vaccine + HBIG
P.        
immune as a result of infection
Q.      
immune as a result of vaccination
R.       
not immune
S.        
chronic carrier of HBV infection
T.        
10%
U.       
30%
V.       
50%
W.     
60%
X.        
70-90%
Y.        
soap and boiling water
Z.        
10% dilution of bleach in water
AA.   
10% dilution of formaldehyde in alcohol
BB.   
ultraviolet irradiation
CC.   
yes
DD.  
no
EE.    
HAV
FF.     
HBV
GG.  
HCV
HH.  
HEV
II.       
HSV
JJ.       
none of the above
Scenario 1.
An asymptomatic primigravida books at 10 weeks. Her partner had an acute HBV infection 4 months ago. What results on routine blood testing would indicate that she has an acute HBV infection?
Scenario 2.
An asymptomatic primigravida books at 10 weeks. Her partner had an acute HBV infection 4 months ago. What results on routine blood testing would indicate that she is immune to the HBV as a result of infection?
Scenario 3.
An asymptomatic primigravida books at 10 weeks. Her partner had an acute HBV infection 4 months ago. What results on routine blood testing would indicate that she is immune to the HBV as a result of HBV vaccine?
Scenario 4.
An asymptomatic primigravida books at 10 weeks. Her partner had an acute HBV infection 9 months ago. What results on routine blood testing would show that she is a chronic carrier of HBV infection?
Scenario 5.
Testing shows that he is positive for HBsAg, positive for HBcAb but negative for IgM HBcAb. What does this mean in relation to his HBV status?
Scenario 6.
Testing shows that he is negative for HBsAg, positive for HBcAb and positive for HBsAb.
What does this mean in relation to his HBV status?
Scenario 7.
How common is chronic HBV carrier status in UK pregnant women?
Scenario 8.
What is the risk of death from chronic HBV carrier status?
Scenario 9.
A primigravid woman at 8 weeks gestation is found to be non-immune to HBV. She has recently married and her husband is a chronic carrier. What should be done to protect her from infection?
Scenario 10.
A woman is a known carrier of HBV. What is the risk of vertical transmission in the first trimester?
Scenario 11.
What is the risk of the neonate who has been infected by vertical transmission becoming a carrier without treatment?
Scenario 12.
Should antiviral maternal therapy in the 3rd. trimester be considered for women with HBeAg or high viral load?
Scenario 13.
How effective is hepatitis B prophylaxis for the neonate in preventing chronic carrier status as a result of vertical transmission?
Scenario 14.
Can a woman who is a chronic HBV carrier breastfeed safely?
Scenario 15.
Hepatitis B infection is the most dangerous of the viral hepatitis infections in pregnancy.
Scenario 16.
A pregnant woman who is not immune to HBV has a partner who is a chronic carrier. Can HBV vaccine be administered safely in pregnancy?
Scenario 17.
A pregnant woman who is not immune has a partner with acute hepatitis due to HBV. He cuts his hand and bleeds onto the kitchen table. How should she clean the surface to ensure that she gets rid of the virus?
Scenario 18.
Is it true that the presence of HBeAg in maternal blood is a particular risk factor for vertical transmission? Not really a scenario, but never mind!
Scenario 19.
Does elective Cs before labour and with the membranes intact reduce the vertical transmission rate?
Scenario 20.
Which hepatitis virus normally produces a mild illness, but represents a major risk to pregnant women, with a mortality rate of up to 5%?
Scenario 21.
A pregnant woman has a history of viral hepatitis and informs the midwife at booking that she is a carrier and that she has a significant risk of cirrhosis and has been advised not to drink alcohol. Which is the most likely hepatitis virus?
Scenario 22.
Which hepatitis virus is an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding after appropriate treatment of the infected mother and prophylaxis for the baby?
Scenario 23.
Which hepatitis virus is linked to an increased risk of obstetric cholestasis?


34.         Confidentiality & consent.
Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to confidentiality.
For each, select the number that best fits the scenario.
Pick one option from the option list.
Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.
Option list.
This EMQ has no option list. This is to make you decide your answers, which is what you are advised to do in the exam before you look at the option list.
Scenario 1.
A 15-year-old girl attends the TOP clinic requesting TOP. She is assessed as Fraser competent. After full discussion arrangements are made for her admission for TOP. She does not wish her parents to be informed. Her mother attends clinic 1 hour after the child has left. She demands full information about her daughter. The consultant has delegated you to deal with her. Which option best fits the action you will take?
Scenario 2.
A 17-year-old A-level student attends the gynaecology clinic requesting TOP. She is accompanied by her 30-year-old mathematics teacher, who is her lover and wishes to give consent. Which option best fits the action you will take?
Scenario 3.
A 12-year-old girl attends the gynaecology clinic with her mother seeking contraceptive advice. She has an 18-year-old boyfriend whom the parents like and she wishes to start having sex. Which option best fits the action you will take?
Scenario 4.
A 15-year-old girl who is Fraser competent is referred to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of vaginal discharge. She reveals that she has been having consensual sexual intercourse for six months with her 18-year-old boyfriend. She asks for advice about suitable contraception as she is happy in the relationship and wants to continue to have sex. Which option best fits the action you will take?
Scenario 5.
You are the new oncology consultant and have just operated on the wife of a local General Practitioner for suspected ovarian cancer. The diagnosis is confirmed and you proceed with appropriate surgery. On completion of the operation you go to the surgeon’s room for a coffee. The senior consultant anaesthetist who was not involved in theatre but is the Medical Director and tells you he is a close friend of the woman, asks what the diagnosis and prognosis are. Which option best fits the action you will take?
Scenario 6.
You are phoned by a doctor looking for information about his wife’s results from the booking clinic she attended two weeks ago. He says that she has given consent for disclosure. She has given a history of 2 terminations but no other pregnancies. She is Rhesus negative, but has Rhesus antibodies. Which option best fits the action you will take?
Scenario 7
You are phoned by a doctor looking for information about his wife’s results from the booking clinic she attended two weeks ago. He says that she has given consent for disclosure. Her serology tests have proved +ve for syphilis. You have spoken to the consultant bacteriologist who says that they have run confirmatory tests and they are +ve too. He is sure the woman has active syphilis. Which option best fits the action(s) you will take?
Scenario 8
A 15-year-old girl attends the TOP clinic requesting TOP. She is assessed as Fraser competent. After full discussion arrangements are made for her admission for TOP. She does not wish her parents to be informed despite your best efforts to persuade her. Who will give consent for the procedure?
Scenario 9
An immature 15-year-old girl attends the gynaecology clinic requesting TOP. She is accompanied by her 25-year-old sister who is a lawyer with whom she has been staying since she knew she was pregnant. She does not want her parents to be informed. The girl is assessed as not Fraser competent. The sister says that she is happy to act in loco parentis and to give consent. Which option best fits the action(s) you will take?
Scenario 10
A 25-year-old woman with Down’s syndrome attends the clinic accompanied by her mother. She has menorrhagia and copes badly with the hygiene aspects. The menorrhagia is bad enough for her now to be on treatment for iron-deficiency anaemia. She has tried all the standard medical methods. To complicate the problem, she has become close friends with a young man she has met at College, to which she travels independently each weekday. Her mother fears that she may already be involved in sexual activity and cannot get an accurate answer from her about it. The mother is keen for her to have hysterectomy to deal with both problems. If you agree that the surgery is appropriate, who can give consent?
Scenario 11
A 25-year-old woman with Down’s syndrome is admitted from College after collapsing. The clinical features are of ectopic pregnancy and she states that she has UPSI with her boyfriend of six months. She has tachycardia and hypotension and it is felt that she should have urgent surgery. You reckon that she is not competent to consent for surgery. Who can give consent?
Scenario 12
A 25-year-old woman with Down’s syndrome is admitted from College after collapsing. The clinical features are of ectopic pregnancy and she states that she has UPSI with her boyfriend of six months. She has tachycardia and hypotension and it is felt that she should have urgent surgery. You reckon that she is not competent to consent for surgery. What limits are there on the surgery?
Scenario 13.
You are the SpR on call and are asked to see a 10-year-old child in the A&E department. She has been brought because of vaginal bleeding. She is accompanied by her parents who give a story of her injuring herself falling of her bike. Examination shows vaginal bleeding and you think the hymen looks torn. You suspect sexual abuse and don’t believe the parents’ story. When this is discussed with the parents they say it is impossible and that they do not want involvement of police or social workers. What action will you take?
Scenario 14.
You are the SpR in theatre with your consultant. Mrs Mary White, age 45, has been listed for abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy – she has a long history of menorrhagia that has not responded to conservative measures. Her mother had ovarian cancer diagnosed at 55 and died from the disease 3 years later. A 10 cm., solid tumour of the left ovary is found on opening the abdomen. Which of the following options is the correct course of action?
A
close the abdomen, see her to explain the findings and book a follow-up appointment in the gynaecological clinic to discuss further management
B
close the abdomen, arrange to see her to explain the findings and refer to the gynaecological oncologist to discuss further management
C
continue with the operation, but don’t remove the left ovary
D
continue with the operation, removing the uterus and both ovaries and tubes
E
continue with the operation, removing the uterus and both ovaries and tubes and obtaining peritoneal washings
F
ask the gynaecological oncologist to attend to perform definitive surgery on the basis that the cyst is likely to be malignant
G
phone the legal department for advice
H
phone the Court of Protection for advice

Scenario 15.
You are an SpR in theatre with your consultant.
Mrs Mary White, age 45, has been listed for abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy – she has a long history of menorrhagia that has not responded to conservative measures. Her mother had ovarian cancer diagnosed at 55 and died from the disease 3 years later.
You perform examination under anaesthesia prior to the abdomen being opened. You find a 10 cm., mass to the left of the uterus. It feels solid. There is no evidence of ascites or other pathology.
 Which of the following options is the correct course of action?
A
Cancel the operation and arrange review in the gynaecology department in 6 weeks
B
Cancel the operation and arrange review by the oncology team
C
Cancel the operation and arrange an urgent scan
D
Continue with the planned procedure
E
Ask the gynaecological oncologist to attend theatre to examine the patient and advise
F
Perform laparoscopy to identify the nature of the mass
G
Phone the legal department



35.         SBA. Coeliac disease & pregnancy
Coeliac disease and pregnancy.
Abbreviations.
AGA:                            anti-gliadin antibodies 
CD:                              coeliac disease.
EMA:                           anti-endomysial antibodies. 
FGR:                            Fetal growth restriction.
IgA:                              immunoglobulin A IgG. 
tTGA:                           anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody.

Question 1.
Lead-in
What is coeliac disease?
Option List
A.       
allergy to gluten
B.       
malabsorption due to large bowel inflammation
C.       
an auto-immune disorder triggered by gluten sensitivity causing villous atrophy of the descending colon in individuals with a genetic predisposition
D.       
an auto-immune disorder triggered by gluten sensitivity causing villous atrophy of the gastric mucosa in individuals with a genetic predisposition
E.        
an auto-immune disorder triggered by gluten sensitivity causing villous atrophy of the small bowel in individuals with a genetic predisposition

Question 2.
Lead-in
What is the prevalence of coeliac disease in women of reproductive age?
Option List
A.       
0.1%
B.       
0.5%
C.       
1-2 %
D.       
2-5%
E.        
5-10%

Question 3.
Lead-in
Which of the following groups have an increased risk of CD?
Option List
A.       
1st. degree relatives of those with CD
B.       
those with type 1 diabetes
C.       
those with iron deficiency anaemia
D.       
those with osteoporosis
E.        
those with unexplained infertility

Question 4.
Lead-in
Which of the following are features of CD in the non-pregnant population?
Option List
A.       
abdominal bloating and pain
B.       
amenorrhoea
C.       
anaemia
D.       
recurrent miscarriage
E.        
unexplained infertility

Question 5.
Lead-in
How do pregnant women with CD present most commonly?
Option List
A
anaemia
B
failure to gain weight in pregnancy
C
intra-uterine growth retardation
D
low BMI
E
no recognised abnormality

Question 6.
Lead-in
Which of the following commonly occur in pregnant women with CD?
Option List
A
anaemia
B
failure to gain weight in pregnancy
C
intra-uterine growth retardation
D
low BMI
E
no recognised abnormality

Question 7.
How should the woman with suspected CD be investigated initially?
Option List
A.       
jejunal biopsy
B.       
IgA EMA
C.       
IgA tTGA
D.       
IgA EMA + IgA tTGA
E.        
rectal biopsy

Question 8.
Lead-in
Which, if any, of the following statements are true in relation to the woman due to have testing for suspected CD?
Option List
A.       
continue with a normal diet.
B.       
continue with a normal diet that includes a minimum of 5 gm. gluten daily
C.       
continue with a normal diet that includes a minimum of 10 gm. gluten daily
D.       
follow a strict gluten-free diet for at least 1 month
E.        
follow a strict gluten-free diet for at least 3 months

Question 9.
Lead-in
Which of the following conditions should make consideration of testing for CD sensible?
Option List
A.       
amenorrhoea
B.       
Down’s syndrome
C.       
epilepsy
D.       
recurrent miscarriage
E.        
Turner’s syndrome
F.        
unexplained infertility

Question 10.
Lead-in
How is the diagnosis of CD confirmed after +ve serological testing?
Option List
A.       
colonoscopy
B.       
enteroscopy
C.       
gastroscopy
D.       
rectal biopsy
E.        
small bowel  biopsy

Question 11.
Lead-in
Which skin condition is particularly associated with CD?
Option List
A.       
atopic eczema
B.       
dermatitis herpetiformis
C.       
dermatitis multiforme
D.       
dermatographia
E.        
psoriasis

Question 12.
Lead-in
Which of the following are likely to be absorbed less well than normally in women with CD?
Option List
A.       
carbohydrate
B.       
fat
C.       
folic acid
D.       
protein
E.        
vitamins B12, D & K

Question 13.
Lead-in
What is the appropriate treatment of CD?
Option List
A.       
antibiotics: long-term in low-dosage
B.       
azathioprine
C.       
cyclophosphamide
D.       
rectal steroids
E.        
none of the above

Question 14.
Lead-in
Which of the following do not contain gluten?
Option List
A.       
barley
B.       
oats
C.       
rapeseed oil
D.       
rye
E.        
wheat

36.         EMQ. Anti-D prophylaxis.
Lead-in.
The following scenarios relate to Rhesus prophylaxis and anti-D.

Abbreviations.
Ig:               immunoglobulin.
FMF:           feto-maternal haemorrhage.
RAADP:      routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis.
RBC:           red blood cells.
RhAI:          Rhesus D alloimmunisation.
BSE:            bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
CJD:            Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.
             
There is no option list to force good technique!

Scenarios.
1)      What proportion of the Caucasian population in the UK has Rh –ve blood group?         
2)      What proportion of the Rhesus +ve Caucasian population is homozygous for RhD?    
3)      What is the chance of a Rh –ve woman with a Rh +ve partner having a Rh –ve child?
4)      When was routine postnatal anti-D prophylaxis introduced in the UK?  
5)      Where does anti-D for prophylactic use come from?
6)      How many deaths per 100,000 births were due to RhAI up to 1969.   
7)      How many deaths per 100,000 births were due to RhAI in 1990.
8)      Anti-D was in short supply in 1969. Which non-sensitised Rh –ve primigravidae with Rh +ve babies would not be given anti-D as a matter of policy?    
9)      List the possible reasons that a Rhesus –ve mother with a Rhesus +ve baby who does not receive anti-D might not become sensitised?                                                                                                                        
10)   What is the UK policy for the administration of anti-D after a term pregnancy?
11)   What is the alternative name of the Kleihauer test?
12)   What does the Kleihauer test do?
13)   How does the Kleihauer test work and what buzz words should you have in your head?
14)   When should a Kleihauer test be done after vaginal delivery?
15)   What blood specimen should be sent to the laboratory for a Kleihauer test?
16)   What steps should be taken to prevent sensitisation in the woman whose blood group is RhDu and whose baby is Rh +ve?
17)   The Kleihauer test is of value in helping to decide if antenatal vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain are due to placental abruption, with a +ve test confirming FMH and making abruption highly probable.  True/False
18)   When should anti-D be offered?
19)   When should a Kleihauer test be considered?                                                                               
20)   How often does the word “considered” feature in the GTG?
21)   A Rhesus –ve woman miscarries a Rh +ve fetus at 18 week’s gestation. What should be done about Rhesus prophylaxis?
22)   A Rhesus –ve woman miscarries a Rh +ve fetus at 20 week’s gestation. What should be done about Rhesus prophylaxis?
23)   Which potentially sensitising events are mentioned in the GTG?
24)   What factors are listed in the GTG as particularly likely to cause FMH > 4 ml
25)   A woman has recurrent bleeding from 20 weeks. What should be done about Rh prophylaxis?
26)   What are the key messages about giving RAADP?





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